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$$b(a+b)^m = \sum_{j=0}^m \binom{m}{j}a^{m-j}b^{j+1}= \sum_{k=1}^m \binom{m}{k-1}a^{m+1-k}b^{k}+b^{m+1}$$

I believe $j = k-1$ though the book does say that. This is related to proving the binomial theorem inductively. How does the $b^{m+1}$ at the end get there? I would expect that to not be there and $a^{m}b$ to be added before the summation. I must be misunderstanding something fundamental here.

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    $\begingroup$ Please see the formatting tips at math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/5020/… $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 5, 2017 at 5:28
  • $\begingroup$ @user372344 I formatted the question for you, please (a) doublecheck it came out right, and (b) click "edit" to see the MathJax behind my edit, and use it next time around. As to the actual question, the sum on the RHS (right-hand side) has all the terms of the sum on the LHS, except the very last one. Write down the few first and last terms, and it will become more obvious. $\endgroup$
    – dxiv
    Commented Jun 5, 2017 at 6:01

2 Answers 2

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On the one hand: $$\sum_{j=0}^m \binom{m}{j}a^{m-j}b^{j+1} = \binom{m}{0}a^{m}b^{1} + \binom{m}{1}a^{m-1}b^{2} + \dots + \binom{m}{m-1}a^{1}b^{m} + \underbrace{\binom{m}{m}a^{0}b^{m+1}}_{b^{m+1}} $$ On the other hand: $$\sum_{k=1}^m \binom{m}{k-1}a^{m+1-k}b^{k} = \binom{m}{0}a^{m}b^{1} + \binom{m}{1}a^{m-1}b^{2} + \dots + \binom{m}{m-1}a^{1}b^{m}$$

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First split off the last term: $$\sum_{j=0}^m\binom mja^{m-j}b^{j+1}=\sum_{j=0}^{m-1}\binom mja^{m-j}b^{j+1}+\binom mma^{m-m}b^{m+1}.$$ Now substitute $k=j+1$ in the first part; the last term simplifies to $b^{m+1}$.

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  • $\begingroup$ That all makes sense exept I don't understand why the rhs summation in the book doesn't have m-1 but instead has m. Why would it be m if the final added term is taken out $\endgroup$
    – user372344
    Commented Jun 5, 2017 at 20:03
  • $\begingroup$ Because if $k=j+1$, summing from $j=0$ to $j=m-1$ is the same as summing from $k=1$ to $k=m$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 5, 2017 at 20:06

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