This is probably a dumb question, but oh well here it is:
One day a student came to me and asked: Why isn't $$ \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2^{2k}}=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2^{n}}$$
using a substitution $n=2k$ makes $n$ range from $0$ to infinity as well and so the change of variables should be correct. (We had just used change of variables of the form $n=k-1$.
Now I convinced him that you could not do such change of variables by looking at other examples, such as $$ \sum_{k=1}^3 4k=4+8+12\neq \sum_{n=4}^{12}n, $$ using $n=4k$ substitution. He seemed satisfied but I wasn't really. For some reason I could not find an intuitive way to explain this, where it should be simple.
Seeing this question made me think about another example and made me realize I still haven't found a intuitive way for this.