I encountered $\sum_{j = 1}^{n} \dfrac{1}{n} = 1$ in my textbook, but I do not understand why this summation $= 1$. My textbook provides no reasoning as to why this is the case.
My understanding is that, since there is nothing in $\dfrac{1}{n}$ that depends on $j$, it seems that we are just summing $\dfrac{1}{n}$ to itself up to $n$. However, I'm not sure how to interpret this and how it equals a value of $1$.
I apologise if there is already a question on this, but my searches have encountered nothing that addresses this specific summation. If I am mistaken, I would appreciate it if someone could please redirect me.
I would greatly appreciate it if people could please take the time to explain the reasoning behind this.