Why the following sequence of function does not converge uniformly at $[0, \infty)$ but converge uniformly for some $a>0, [a,\infty)$
$$f_n(x) := n^2x^2e^{-nx}$$
So I know the limit function $f$ is $f=0$. Hence $\lim _{n\rightarrow\infty} \left \| f_n - 0 \right \| = 0$.
Shouldn't this mean uniform convergence, but why is this not true if I include $0$ in my interval. Any help or insights to this is deeply appreciated. If I made a mistake in my working I would be very grateful if it can be pointed out.
Thank you.