Let $R$ be a principal ideal ring, meaning that every ideal is generated by one element. Given a subset $A\subseteq R$, it is generally not possible to choose one element $x\in A$ so that $I(\{x\})=I(A)$, i.e. the ideal generated by $A$ need not be generated by a single element of $A$.
As an example one can consider $R=\mathbb Z$ and $A=\{2,3\}$, then $I(A)=\mathbb Z$.
My question is whether one can choose a finite subset $X$ of $A$ so that $I(A)=I(X)$.
In $\mathbb Z$ for example this is always possible:
The ideal generated by a set is always the ideal generated by the GCD of that set. If $X\subseteq Y$ then $\mathrm{GCD}(Y)≤\mathrm{GCD}(X)$. If we have a finite sbuset $X$ of $A$ and the GCDs are not equal, there must exist an element of $A$ so that appending it to $X$ will decrease the GCD. This can only happen a finite amount of times since we are decreasing a positive number by at least $1$ each time.
I don't expect this argument to work in general principal ideal rings, since it is using a total ordering structure on the ideal space for which every ideal has only finitely many "lesser" ideals.