I was looking for proofs using Calculus for the area of a circle and come across this one $$\int 2 \pi r \, dr = 2\pi \frac {r^2}{2} = \pi r^2$$ and it struck me as being particularly easy. The only other proof I've seen was by a teacher and it involved integrating $x = \sqrt{r^2 - y^2}$ from $-1$ to $1$, using trig substitutions and then doubling the area to get $\pi r^2$ but the above proof seemed much more straight forward.
Is it a valid proof, or is it based on circular logic or some other kind of fallacy?