I will skip the Base Case step.
This is the questions.
Use mathematical induction to prove that$$\frac{1}{2!}+\frac{2}{3!}+\cdots+\frac{n}{(n+1)!}=1-\frac{1}{(n+1)!}$$for all integers $n\ge 1$.
This is my proof:
$$\sum_{i=1}^n \frac{i}{(i+1)!} = 1-\frac{1}{(n+1)!}$$ $$\sum_{i=1}^k \frac{i}{(i+1)!} = 1-\frac{1}{(k+1)!}$$ $$\sum_{i=1}^{k+1} \frac{i}{(i+1)!} = 1-\frac{1}{(k+2)!}$$ $$\sum_{i=1}^{k+1} \frac{i}{(i+1)!} = \sum_{i=1}^k \frac{i}{(i+1)!} + \frac{k+1}{(k+2)!}$$ $$\sum_{i=1}^{k+1} \frac{i}{(i+1)!} = 1-\frac{1}{(k+1)!} + \frac{k+1}{(k+2)!}$$
And this is where I am stuck, I don't know how to prove that: $$1-\frac{1}{(k+1)!} + \frac{k+1}{(k+2)!} = 1-\frac{1}{(k+2)!}$$