I am trying to figure out the odds of a certain situation in the card game French Tarot, specifically what are the odds of the taker being out of the same suit of the $R$ that a defender has played on round 1. This is a bad situation (for the defenders) since the taker would win at least $6$ points on the first round.
As a start to this, I want to calculate the odds of any player who takes the dog ending up out of a suit of cards (i.e. having 0 cards of that suit). The dog is a set of 6 cards that the attacker can pick from and must put back 6 cards before starting play.
To calculate this, I want to see the probability that the person has at most 6 of one suit after adding the 6 cars from the dog to their 18 cards (assuming a 4 player game). With 6 or less cards for one suite they can all be placed in the dog, ending up with none of that suit for the final 18 cards before the playing begins.
I wrote the following formula to capture this: $$C(78-14,24-6)×C(78-(24-6),6)/C(78,24)$$
The first term $C(78-14,24-6)$ represents choosing $18$ cards that are not from that suit, and the second term $C(78-(24-6),6)$ represents picking 6 more cars (of any suit) from the remaining cards, which is 78 total minus the first 18. The last term in the division $C(78,24)$ represents the total number of hands of $24$.
However, when I plug this into Wolfram Alpha I get $\approx2280$ which means my equation is fundamentally wrong since it should be less than $1$.
If someone can tell me where I am going wrong I'd appreciate it.
Update: I realize that in a real game of French Tarot the attacker who wins the bet is likely to have a better hand than the others, but I am not factoring that in to my calculations at this point, and am assuming an even distribution. Mainly I want to see what is wrong with my equation and then I can build off that.