0
$\begingroup$

I want to prove that well-orderedness on the integers implies induction. The proof is the classical "assume a contradiction" and see what happens.

So begin with an intended contradiction:

\begin{align*} &\quad A\subset\mathbb{Z} \;\wedge\; 0\in A \;\wedge\; (n\in A \implies (n+1)\in A) \;\;\implies\;\; \neg \mathbb{N}\subset A \\ &\quad\text{...unpacking definition of $\neg\mathbb{N}\subset A$...} \\ &= A\subset\mathbb{Z} \;\wedge\; 0\in A \;\wedge\; (n\in A \implies (n+1)\in A) \;\;\implies\;\; \exists n\in \mathbb{N} \;s.t. \neg n\in A \\ &\quad\text{...definition of bunches...} \\ &= A\subset\mathbb{Z} \;\wedge\; 0\in A \;\wedge\; (n\in A \implies (n+1)\in A) \;\;\implies\;\; \exists B\subset \mathbb{N} \;s.t. |B| > 0 \;\wedge\; &&B\cap A = \emptyset \end{align*}

Working within the context of what has been proven so far, we let $c$ be the minimal element of the non-empty set $B$:

\begin{align*} &\quad (c = \min B) \\ &\quad\text{...$0\in A \wedge B\cap A = \emptyset$...}\\ &= c = \min B \;\;\implies\;\; \neg (c\in A) \;\wedge\; c > 0 \\ &\quad\text{...algebra...}\\ &= c = \min B \;\;\implies\;\; \neg (c\in A) \;\wedge\; c - 1 > -1 \\ &\quad\text{...properties of $>$ and $\geq$...}\\ &= c = \min B \;\;\implies\;\; \neg (c\in A) \;\wedge\; c - 1 \geq 0 \\ &\quad\text{...definition of $\geq$...} \\ &= c = \min B \;\;\implies\;\; \neg (c\in A) \;\wedge\; (c - 1 = 0 \vee c > 0) \\ &\quad \text{...$0\in A$...} \\ &= c = \min B \;\;\implies\;\; \neg (c\in A) \;\wedge\; [(c - 1 = 0 \implies c - 1\in A) \vee c > 0] \\ &\quad\text{...$n-1\in A \implies n\in A$...} \\ &= c = \min B \;\;\implies\;\; \neg (c\in A) \;\wedge\; [(c - 1 = 0 \implies c - 1\in A \implies c\in A) \vee c > 0] \\ &\quad\text{...transitivity of $\implies$...}\\ &= c = \min B \;\;\implies\;\; \neg (c\in A) \;\wedge\; [(c - 1 = 0 \implies c\in A) \vee c > 0]\\ &\quad\text{...distributivity of $\wedge$ over $\vee$...}\\ &= c = \min B \;\;\implies\;\; \neg (c\in A) \wedge (c - 1 = 0 \implies c\in A) \vee \neg (c\in A) \wedge c > 0 \\ &\quad\text{...contrapositive law...}\\ &= c = \min B \;\;\implies\;\; \neg (c\in A) \wedge (\neg(c\in A) \implies \neg(c - 1 = 0)) \vee \neg (c\in A) \wedge c > 0 \\ &\quad\text{...law of discharge...} \\ &= c = \min B \;\;\implies\;\; \neg(c\in A) \wedge \neg(c - 1 = 0) \vee \neg (c\in A) \wedge c > 0 \\ &\quad\text{...De Morgan's Law...} \\ &= c = \min B \;\;\implies\;\; \neg(c \in A \vee c - 1 = 0) \;\vee\; \neg (c \in A) \wedge c > 0 \\ &\quad\text{...De Morgan's Law...} \\ &= c = \min B \;\;\implies\;\; \neg(c \in A \vee c - 1 = 0) \;\vee\; \neg ((c \in A) \vee c \leq 0) \\ &\quad\text{...De Morgan's Law...} \\ &= c = \min B \;\;\implies\;\; \neg[(c \in A \vee c - 1 = 0) \wedge (c \in A \vee c \leq 0)] \\ &\quad\text{...factoring out $c:A$...} \\ &= c = \min B \;\;\implies\;\; \neg[c \in A \vee (c - 1 = 0 \wedge c \leq 0)] \\ &\quad\text{...algebra...} \\ &= c = \min B \;\;\implies\;\; \neg[c \in A \vee (c = 1 \wedge c \leq 0)] \\ &\quad\text{...integer properties...} \\ &= c = \min B \;\;\implies\;\; \neg[c \in A \vee \bot] \\ &\quad\text{...definition of $\vee$...} \\ &= c = \min B \;\;\implies\;\; \neg(c \in A) \end{align*}

I am supposed to get a simpler contradiction, which is that $c = \min B \wedge c \in A$. Formally, I do not get this. What is my error?

$\endgroup$
5
  • $\begingroup$ Since $\mathbb Z$ is not, in fact, well-ordered, "$\mathbb Z$ well-ordered implies induction" is vacuously true. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 13, 2015 at 1:33
  • $\begingroup$ @HenningMakholm I have been taught that well-ordered means that any subset of $\mathbb{Z}$ has a minimal element? Well-orderedness is then taken as an axiom for the integers? $\endgroup$
    – bzm3r
    Commented Sep 13, 2015 at 1:34
  • $\begingroup$ @HenningMakholm see: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Well-order $\endgroup$
    – bzm3r
    Commented Sep 13, 2015 at 1:35
  • $\begingroup$ x @user: That is the definition of "well-ordered", yes. But $\mathbb Z$ does not satisfy that definition. For example the set of all even numbers, $\{\ldots,-6,-4,-2,0,2,4,6,\ldots\}\subset\mathbb Z$ has no minimal element. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 13, 2015 at 1:36
  • $\begingroup$ @HenningMakholm I guess I should clarify by saying that all sets of $\mathbb{Z}$ that are bounded below are well-ordered. $\endgroup$
    – bzm3r
    Commented Sep 13, 2015 at 1:39

2 Answers 2

1
$\begingroup$

It seems that you're trying to prove that $$\forall A,\Bigl[(A\subseteq\Bbb Z)\wedge(0\in A)\wedge\bigl((n\in A)\longrightarrow (n+1\in A)\bigr)\Bigr]\longrightarrow \Bbb N\subseteq A.$$

Sadly, if this is indeed what you're trying to show, you got off to a bad start.

Recall that for statements $p,q,$ we have that $p\longrightarrow q$ is equivalent to $q\vee\neg p.$ On the one hand, then, $p\longrightarrow\neg q$ is equivalent to $\neg q\vee\neg p,$ or $\neg(p\wedge q).$ On the other hand, $\neg(p\longrightarrow q)$ is equivalent to $\neg(q\vee\neg p),$ or $p\wedge\neg q.$ But $p\wedge\neg q$ is a strictly stronger statement than $\neg(p\wedge q)$--that is, $p\wedge\neg q$ implies $\neg(p\wedge q),$ but the converse implication doesn't hold--so you've erred in your negation in the first step. Instead, you should start with the assumption $$\exists A:\Bigl[(A\subseteq\Bbb Z)\wedge(0\in A)\wedge\bigl((n\in A)\longrightarrow (n+1\in A)\bigr)\Bigr]\wedge\neg(\Bbb N\subseteq A).$$

Can you take it from there?

$\endgroup$
0
$\begingroup$

Your style of proof is close to unreadable, making so much of trivial logical equivalences that the underlying idea, if any, is very difficult go get sight of. There's too many trees to see your forest.

That being said, the usual way to argue that well-orderedness of $\mathbb N$ (not $\mathbb Z$!) implies induction would be something like:

  1. Assume (as you do) that $A\subseteq \mathbb N$ satisfies $0\in A$ and $\forall n\in\mathbb N.n\in A\to n+1\in A$. Further assume (for a contradiction) that $A\ne \mathbb N$.

  2. $B=\mathbb N\setminus A$ must be nonempty because otherwise $A=\mathbb N$.

  3. Because of well-ordering, $B$ contains a minimal element $c$.

  4. Since we're assuming $0\in A$, we must have $c\ne 0$. But then $c=d+1$ for some $d\in \mathbb N$.

  5. Because $d<c$ and $c$ was minimal in $B$, $d\notin B$. But then $d\in A$.

  6. By the induction-step assumption this implies that $c=d+1\in A$.

  7. But if $c\in A$ then $c\notin B$, which contradicts how we picked $c$.

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ I am trying to formalize this logic using prepositional calculus, hence the question. As it stands, the proof you outline is not "formal enough" for my purposes. So, I have to stick to the "hard to read" format. I'll try to use what you wrote as an outline to figure out where my error might be though. $\endgroup$
    – bzm3r
    Commented Sep 13, 2015 at 1:58
  • $\begingroup$ Thinking about your solution more, and comparing it with mine, I think I see the issue. In step 6, you say that by the induction step, this implies that $c = d + 1 \in A$. However, I think what is implied is that $c = d + 1 \in A \vee c > d + 1$. Can you confirm? $\endgroup$
    – bzm3r
    Commented Sep 13, 2015 at 2:47
  • $\begingroup$ @user89: $d$ was chosen in step 4 such that $c=d+1$. The induction step gives $d+1\in A$ which implies $c\in A$ because $c$ and $d+1$ are already known to be the same. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 13, 2015 at 2:54

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .