Let $(X_i)_{i\in\mathbb{N}}$ be a sequence of independent and square-integrable random variables with $\operatorname{E}\left[X_i\right]=0$ and $$\sum_{i\in\mathbb{N}}\operatorname{Var}\left[X_i\right]<\infty$$ Let $$X^{(n)}:=\sum_{i=1}^nX_i\;\;\;\text{and}\;\;\;D^{(m,n)}:=X^{(n)}-X^{(m)}$$ I want to show that $\left(X^{(n)}\right)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ is a stochastic Cauchy sequence, i.e. $$\lim_{m,n\to\infty}\Pr\left[\left|D^{(m,n)}\right|>\varepsilon\right]=0\;\;\;\text{for all }\varepsilon>0\tag{0}$$
I've tried the following:
- Since $(X_i)_{i\in\mathbb{N}}$ is independent, the Bienaymé equation yields $$V_n:=\operatorname{Var}\left[X^{(n)}\right]=\sum_{i=1}^n\operatorname{Var}\left[X_i\right]$$
- Thus, $$\lim_{n\to\infty}V_n=\sum_{i\in\mathbb{N}}\operatorname{Var}\left[X_i\right]<\infty$$ implies $$\sup_{n\in\mathbb{N}}V_n<\infty\tag{1}$$
- Moreover, $$\operatorname{E}\left[X^{(n)}\right]=\sum_{i=1}^n\operatorname{E}\left[X_i\right]=0\tag{2}$$
- $(1)$ and $(2)$ imply the uniform integrability of $\left(X^{(n)}\right)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$
So, if I could show $(0)$ - which implies that $\left(X^{(n)}\right)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ converges stochastically - I could conclude that $\left(X^{(n)}\right)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ converges in $L^2$. However, I wasn't able to find an easy proof for $(0)$.