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In Milne's text http://www.jmilne.org/math/CourseNotes/iAG.pdf (A71), he introduces the "variety of connected components" of a finite type scheme $X$ over $k$ as the universal example of a zero dimensional variety $\pi_0(X)$ with a map $X\rightarrow \pi_0(X)$. In particular, the fibers of the maps will be the connected components of $X$. (Milne's definition of a variety is a finite type $k$ scheme that is also geometrically reduced and separable.)

In particular, he claims that 1) $\pi_0(X)$ exists 2) the map $X\rightarrow \pi_0(X)$ commutes with extension of the base field 3) $\pi_0(X\times_k Y) = \pi_0(X)\times_k\pi_0(Y)$. This is used to show that a connected algebraic group is irreducible by allowing us to reduce to the case $k=\overline{k}$ by base change (after which our group would still be connected).

However, these facts are not obvious to me, and I wondered if there was a reference or an explanation.


Attempts: To approach 1) I thought above associating a field ${\rm Spec}K$ to each connected component of $X$. If $X$ is connected, here $K$ is the largest field, separated over $k$ with a map $K\rightarrow \Gamma(X,\mathscr{O}_X)$. (If you have two such fields, you can take the composite, so there's a unique maximal one.)

However, then 2) and 3) are not obvious. In particular, for 2), if I take an inseparable extension $L$ of $k$ and base change by that, $\pi_0(X)\times_k L$ might have points that aren't separable over $k$ (so not geometrically reduced), which means something went wrong.

If I assume that he meant for $\pi_0(X)$ to just be a scheme and not geometrically reduced, then I have to think of what the right nonreduced structure is, and I'm not sure how to do that.

Anyways, I think I spent more time on a small technical detail than I should have, and I should just ask for help.

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  • $\begingroup$ Isn't it clear that $\pi_0 (X)$ should be a disjoint union of $n$ copies of $\operatorname{Spec} k$, where $n$ is the number of connected components? $\endgroup$
    – Zhen Lin
    Commented Oct 16, 2014 at 18:59
  • $\begingroup$ @ZhenLin The trouble is that this is not universal. For example, the $\mathbb{R}$-scheme $\operatorname{Spec} \mathbb{C}$ certainly has a map to $\operatorname{Spec} \mathbb{R}$, but it factors through the map to $\operatorname{Spec} \mathbb{C}$. So it's important to take the biggest separable thing possible. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 16, 2014 at 19:04
  • $\begingroup$ $\pi_0(X)$ is finite and étale over $k$. $\endgroup$
    – Cantlog
    Commented Oct 16, 2014 at 19:31
  • $\begingroup$ What notes are you referring to? -- your link is broken. This is all explained in Section 1b of Milne's notes iAG200 and (better) his book, Algebraic Groups, CUP, 2017. $\endgroup$
    – user829952
    Commented Jun 3, 2021 at 17:35

2 Answers 2

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This inspired me to slog through quite a few definitions, but I think the point is this: Being geometrically reduced is relative to the base field. Once we've passed to $L$, we no longer need to worry about elements inseparable over $k$, because we'll be doing our base changes with respect to $L$.

To make it crystal clear: if I take $k = \mathbb{F}_2 (t)$, $L = \mathbb{F}_2 (\sqrt{t})$, then $L$ is certainly not geometrically reduced over $k$, because $L\otimes_k L \cong L[T]/(T^2 - t) \cong L[T]/(T-\sqrt{t})^2$ is not reduced. But this problem disappears when we ask whether $L$ is geometrically reduced over itself, because $L\otimes_L L \cong L$ is perfectly well reduced.

This might also resolve your issues with 3). The basic point is a fibered product of geometrically reduced things is geometrically reduced, and a base change of something geometrically reduced is geometrically reduced.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks! This certainly helps. Do you know why the product of two geometrically reduced things is geometrically reduced (and why the product of a geometrically reduced scheme with a reduced scheme is reduced)? Also, now that we know that taking fiber products and base extensions gives us examples of finite etale schemes over the base field (to borrow the fancier terms from the comments above), do you know why they are the "largest" (or universal) examples? $\endgroup$
    – DCT
    Commented Oct 17, 2014 at 12:57
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    $\begingroup$ @Dtseng Geometrically reduced means that the base change to any field is still reduced. But the base change of $X\times_k Y$ along $k\subset k'$ is just $X_{k'} \times_{k'} Y_{k'}$. But the product of a geometrically reduced $k'$-scheme with a reduced $k'$-scheme is reduced. I think you check this stalkwise, but in any case there's a proof at the Stacks Project. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 17, 2014 at 13:34
  • $\begingroup$ @Dtseng Also, I'm not sure I follow the question about universality, but your choice of $K$ gives universality for the map $X\to \pi_0 (X)$, and this universality is preserved by various other universal things. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 17, 2014 at 22:28
  • $\begingroup$ I just mean that, if $X\rightarrow \pi_0(X), Y\rightarrow \pi_0(Y)$, then $X\times Y\rightarrow \pi_0(X)\times \pi_0(Y)$ is induced. However, I don't know if $\pi_0(X)\times \pi_0(Y)$ is as big as possible. Why should $\pi_0(X)\times \pi_0(Y)\rightarrow k$ factor through $\pi_0(X\times Y)\rightarrow k$? I don't get it free from fiber products since the map I want is going the other way. I looked what was written in the Stacks project, and I think the key fact is, if $R$ is reduced and Noetherian, then $R$ embeds into a product of fields (its total quotient ring). $\endgroup$
    – DCT
    Commented Oct 17, 2014 at 22:41
  • $\begingroup$ @Dtseng Oh, I see. Yes, somehow I didn't realize that the arrows go the wrong way. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 17, 2014 at 22:51
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Your construction might not be correct (though there may be a not obvious equivalence between your construction and the true construction, or maynot and with an obvious counter-example). First problem is that it may not well-defined that what is the large field in $A$. For example $A=k'\times k''$ for $k'\ncong k''$ non-trivial field extensions. And also there is no obvious indication that your $K$ is finite type over $k$.

I don't know whether Milne thought the construction is absolutely trivial. I must complain that it causes lots of difficulty to readers by not writing down the construction or even one reference.

The construction is based on Stack 0316.

Let $\bar{k}$ be the separable closure of $k$ and $\pi_0(X_\bar{k})$ be the set of irreducible components of $X_\bar{k}$. Then $\pi_0(X_\bar{k})$ has an $\mathrm{Gal}(\bar{k}/k)$ on it. Since we are talking about scheme of finite type, $\pi_0(X_\bar{k})$ is finite. For $X_1, X_2 \subset X$ disjoint, the orbit of $\pi_0((X_1)_\bar{k})$ and $\pi_0((X_2)_\bar{k})$ are disjoint. In fact by Lemma 038B the union of an orbit of $\mathrm{Gal}(\bar{k}/k)$ can be descended to a subscheme of $X$. Hence orbits correspond exactly to connected components of $X$.

We now look at one orbit and assume $X$ is connected. In view of Lemma 038D, we can take the kernel $N$ of $\mathrm{Gal}(\bar{k}/k) \rightarrow \mathrm{Perm}(\pi_0(X_\bar{k}))$. Then $\bar{k}^N=:k'$ satisfies that $X_{k'}$ has a trivial Galois action on it. By Lemma 038D(1), trivial Galois action is equivalent to geometrically connectedness in each components. So $k'$ is the minimal field extension that makes $X$ geometrically connected in each components and is the $\pi_0(X)$ we want to construct. In fact the action of $\mathrm{Gal}(\bar{k}/k)$ on $\pi_0(X_\bar{k})$ can be identified with the action on $\bar{k}\otimes_kk'$.

In view of Lemma 038D(2) and the fact that the action of $\mathrm{Gal}(\bar{k}/k)$ on $\pi_0(X_\bar{k})$ can be identified with the action on $\bar{k}\otimes_kk'$, the condition (2) of varieties of connected components is easy to shown. In fact let $k_1, k_2$ correspond to $\pi_0$ of $X$ and $Y$, then the Galois action on $X\times Y$ can be identified with that on $\bar{k}\otimes k_1 \otimes k_2$. So we get (3).

I find a gap in the construction. We must have a morphism from $X$ to $\pi_0(X)$. $X_\bar{k} = \coprod_{\sigma \in \pi_0(X_\bar{k})} (X_\bar{k})_\sigma$ is a decomposition into connected components. Every $(X_\bar{k})_\sigma$ is naturally a $\bar{k}$-scheme. Then we have a morphism $X_\bar{k} \rightarrow \coprod_{\sigma \in \pi_0(X_\bar{k})} (\bar{k})_\sigma$. Note that $\coprod_{\sigma \in \pi_0(X_\bar{k})} (\bar{k})_\sigma$ has a Galois action on it, consisting of the action on $\pi_0(X_\bar{k})$ and on $\bar{k}$ it self. Note that the morphism is compatible with the Galois action since we use the 'natural' $\bar{k}$ structure on $X_\bar{k}$. I explain the naturality in the following.

The natural structure can be seen locally. Assume $X = \mathrm{Spec}(A)$. Then $X_\bar{k} = \mathrm{Spec}(A\otimes\bar{k})$. Let $A\otimes\bar{k} = \prod A_i$. Then multiplication of $\bar{k}$ on $A\otimes \bar{k}$ gives the multiplication of $\bar{k}$ on each $A_i$. This gives the natural $\bar{k}$-algebra structure on each $A_i$ and each $\bar{k} \rightarrow A_i$ summing up to be $\prod (\bar{k})_i \rightarrow \prod A_i$. Let $\sigma \in \mathrm{Gal}(\bar{k}/k)$. Since $\sigma(la)= \sigma(l) \sigma(a)$ for $l \in \bar{k}$ and $\sigma(a) \in A$ and $(l)_i(a)_i = la$ for $a \in A_i= A_i \times 0 \times \cdots \times 0 \subset A$ where we write $(l)_i$ (resp. $(a)_i$) to indicate that it is considered as an element in the $i$-th component of $\prod (\bar{k})_i$ (resp. $\prod A_i$), we have that the morphism is compatible with the Galois action.

As the construction, $\prod_{\sigma \in \pi_0(X_\bar{k})} (\bar{k})_\sigma \simeq \pi_0(X)\otimes_k\bar{k}$ with the Galois action acting on the right tensor product component. Hence when you do Galois descent, you get $\pi_0(X)$, i.e. when you do Galois descent, $X_\bar{k} \rightarrow \coprod_{\sigma \in \pi_0(X_\bar{k})} (\bar{k})_\sigma$ becomes $X \rightarrow \pi_0(X)$.

You can come up with the idea by yourself once your read through that stack thread.

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