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I am in currently in a discrete mathematics class, and I've done well on every problem I've encountered. Unfortunately, I find myself weak at some of the seemingly straight forward induction problems. As is the case of the following corollary. I will attempt to show as far as I've gotten in the problem and where I have hit a road block.

Theorem: $n(n^2 +5)$ is divisible by 6 for every integer $n\ge0$

Proof: Let the property $P(n)$ be the sentence "$n(n^2 +5)$ is divisible by 6."

For our base case we will show that $P(0)$. That is, $0(0^2 +5)$ is divisible by 6. But, $0(0^2 +5)=0$ so $P(0)$ says that $0$ is divisible by 6 which is clearly true because $0$ is divisible by all integers as was previously shown in our text.

Now, for our inductive step we must show that $P(k) \Rightarrow P(k+1)$. Now, by definition of divisibility, $P(k)$ says that $k(k^2 +5) =6r$ for some $r\in \mathbb Z$ (EDIT AFTER HINT). Also, $P(k+1)$ says that $(k+1)[(k+1)^2 +5]=6p$ for some $p\in \mathbb Z$. After expansion and substitution $(k+1)[(k+1)^2 +5 = k^3 + 3k^2 +8k +6 = (k^3 +5k)+3k^2 +3k +6 = 6r +3k^2 +3k + 6= 3(2r +k^2 + k +2)=3(2r+k(k+1)+2)$

However, note that $k(k+1)$ represents the pruduct of two consecutive integers and is thus even. That is, $k(k+1)=2q$ for some $q\in \mathbb Z$. Now, $2r+k(k+1)+2 = 2r+2q+2$, but this is simply the sum of three even numbers and is thus an even number itself. That is, $2r+2q+2 = 2p$ for some $p\in\mathbb Z$. Therefore, $(k+1)[(k+1)^2 +5] =6q$.

EDIT:PROBLEM SOLVED - This is where I get stuck I've tried to expand $(k+1)[(k+1)^2 +5]$ which gives me $k^3 + 3k^2 +8k +6$. I've tried to manipulate it so that $k^3 + 3k^2 +8k +6=(k^3 +5k)+3k^2 +3k +6 = 6r +3k^2 +3k + 6= 3(2r +k^2 + k +2)$. However, this only shows divisibility by 3.

Any help would be much appreciated. Thank you!

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3 Answers 3

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$\displaystyle k^2+k=k(k+1)$ is a product of two consecutive integers, hence divisible by $2$

W/O induction, $$n(n^2+5)=\underbrace{n(n-1)(n+1)}_{\text{product of } 3 \text{ consecutive integers }}+6n$$

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    $\begingroup$ Okay you hint helped me enormously! Thank you. I am writing my full solution on a piece of paper now and will transfer it over in an edit momentarily. :) $\endgroup$
    – Valentino
    Commented Aug 6, 2014 at 17:16
  • $\begingroup$ It is easy to show that the product of three consecutive integers is divisble by $6$ by induction, but how do you do it straighforward? It seems to me that your solution is very elegant, but still needs induction (which is good in the case of the problem at hand here). $\endgroup$
    – Martigan
    Commented Aug 7, 2014 at 8:17
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Method 1:

$$0\left(0^2+5\right)=0$$ $$1\left(1^2+5\right)=6$$ $$2\left(2^2+5\right)=18$$ $$3\left(3^2+5\right)=42$$ $$4\left(4^2+5\right)=84$$ $$5\left(5^2+5\right)=150$$

Since all of these are $0 \pmod 6$, every other number must be $0 \pmod 6$ as well.

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In the general setting of divisibility of a polynomial function by a constant I would expand the polynomial around the constant in a Taylor series, in this case $n(n^2+5)=246+113(n-6)+18(n-6)^2+(n-6)^3$. The induction then basically needs to consider the divisibility of the constant term in the Taylor series.

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