I am reading Herstein and it makes the following claim.
The sentence followed by the definition is what I don't get.
A prime element $\pi \in R$ has no non-trivial factorisation in $R$.
By definition, I see that if $\pi = ab$ for some $a,b\in R$, then exactly one of $a$ or $b$ must be a unit. (But not both, because otherwise their product $ab$ would be a unit and so would $\pi$, which is not allowed by the definition of prime elements)
By this I take it to mean that the only factorisation of $\pi$ is where one of $a$ or $b$ is a unit and the other must be $\pi$, but for this I can't see why the other non-unit, say $b$, cannot be something that isn't $\pi$ but where $ab$ multiply up to $\pi$.
Any help appreciated thanks!
Edit: snapshot from book added to clarify that this is the paragraph I don't understand.