2
$\begingroup$

Theorem 1(Cauchy Theorem for star shaped domains)

Let $\Omega \subseteq \mathbb{C}$, be a star shaped domain. If $f$ is holomorphic on $\Omega$, then it possesses a primitive and $\int_{\gamma}f(z)dz=0$, for every closed curve $\gamma$ in $\Omega$.

Theorem 2(Cauchy Theorem homology version)

Let $\Omega \subseteq \mathbb{C}$ be an open set and let $f$ be holomorphic on $\Omega$. If $\Gamma$ is a cycle contained in $\Omega$, such that $\Gamma$ is 0-homologous, then $\int_{\Gamma}f(z)dz=0$.

I know that the second Theorem is the more general one. So there is an exercise that asks us to formally derive the Star shaped version of Cauchy's theorem by using the homology version. Since I am new to the homology version of Cauchy Theorem, I am not sure if what I did was correct.

My attempt: A cycle $\Gamma$ in $\Omega$ is called 0-homologous if $Ind_{\Gamma}(a)=0 \forall a \notin \Omega $. If $\Gamma=\gamma$, where $\gamma$ is some star shaped curve, then $Ind_{\Gamma}(a)=0 \forall a \notin \Omega$, and thus by the homology version we get $\int_{\gamma} f(z)dz=0$.

Question: Is there a better way of doing this? (I kind of have the feeling that my argumentation is somewhat handwavy). How do I argue for the existence of a primitive?

$\endgroup$
16
  • $\begingroup$ You need to prove your assertion that the curve is in fact 0-homologous. How do you use the star-shaped hypothesis to do so? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 26, 2023 at 18:37
  • $\begingroup$ @TedShifrin I am not sure how to. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 26, 2023 at 18:51
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Have you drawn pictures? What if $\Gamma$ is very close to the star point? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 26, 2023 at 18:53
  • $\begingroup$ Yes I tried, but the only argumentation I can think of why star shaped domains are 0-homologous is that for $a \notin \Omega$, the $Ind_{\Gamma}(a)=0$ in a geometrical sense. Homology is something completely new to me (just learned it 2 days ago). $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 26, 2023 at 19:05
  • $\begingroup$ @TedShifrin Do you mean to approximate a star shaped domain, and use the $Ind_{\gamma}(a)=\frac{1}{2 \pi i}\int_{\gamma}\frac{1}{z-a}$ formula? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 26, 2023 at 19:13

1 Answer 1

0
$\begingroup$

(For some unknown reason — probably because I am using the Tor browser — "Editing is currently forbidden" and I am unable to edit my old answer. So, I make a new one.)

Let $c$ be the star center of $\Omega$. For any $a\notin\Omega$, let $L$ be the half-line $\{t(a-c): t\ge0\}$. Since $\Omega$ is star-shaped, $(a+L)\cap\Omega=\emptyset$. In particular, for any closed curve $\gamma$ whose image $[\gamma]$ lies inside $\Omega$, we have $(a+L)\cap[\gamma]=\emptyset$.

Take $L$ as the branch cut of the argument function. Since $(a+L)\cap[\gamma]=\emptyset$, the curve $\gamma-a$ does not cross $L$. Therefore $\operatorname{Ind}_{\gamma-a}(0)=0$. Hence $\operatorname{Ind}_\gamma(a)=0$.

Alternatively, since $a+L$ is unbounded, $a$ lies inside an unbounded connected component of $\mathbb C\setminus[\gamma]$. Therefore $\operatorname{Ind}_\gamma(a)=0$.

(Since "Editing is currently forbidden", I cannot comment or reply to any comment. Sorry.)

$\endgroup$

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .