5
$\begingroup$

Let $X$ $Y$ $Z$ independent, exponentially distributed random variables with parameters $a$ $b$ $c$ respectively. Calculate $P(X<Y<Z)$.

One way is to compute integral of joint density.

Second way which my textbook describe is:

$$P(X<Y<Z)=P(X<\min(Y,Z))P(Y<Z)$$

$\min(Y,Z)$ is exponentially distributed with parameter $b+c$ and the rest is easy integration.

However why is $P(X<Y<Z)=P(X<\min(Y,Z))P(Y<Z)$ true? Why not $P(X<Y<Z)=P(X<Y)P(Y<Z)$? (independent question)

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ Are the events $X<Y$ and $Y<Z$ independent? $\endgroup$
    – paw88789
    Commented Jun 3, 2023 at 20:28
  • $\begingroup$ No. Okay so second question is answered, what about first? $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 3, 2023 at 21:09

1 Answer 1

6
$\begingroup$

The textbook way can be justified by the following facts for mutually independent exponential random variables $\{W_i\}_{i=1}^{\infty}$ (with rate parameters $\{\lambda_i\}_{i=1}^{\infty})$ that "race" against each other:

  1. The winning time is exponentially distributed: $$\min[W_1, ..., W_n] \sim Exp(\lambda_1+...+\lambda_n)$$

  2. The probability of winning is proportional to the rate parameter: $$P[W_1<W_2] = \frac{\lambda_1}{\lambda_1+\lambda_2}$$

  3. The winning time is independent of who wins: $$\{W_1= min[W_1, ..., W_n]\} \quad \mbox{is independent of } \quad \min[W_1, ..., W_n]$$

So if $X,Y,Z$ are mutually independent exponential random variables with parameters $\lambda_X, \lambda_Y, \lambda_Z$, we can define $T=\min[Y,Z]$ and property 3 implies $T$ is independent of $\{Y<Z\}$. So $(X,T)$ is independent of $\{Y<Z\}$ so \begin{align} P[X<Y<Z] &= P[Y<Z]P[X<\min[Y, Z] | Y<Z] \\ &=P[Y<Z]P[X<T|Y<Z]\\ &=P[Y<Z]P[X<T]\\ &=\frac{\lambda_Y}{\lambda_Y+\lambda_Z}\cdot \frac{\lambda_X}{\lambda_X+\lambda_Y+\lambda_Z} \end{align}


On the other hand a more direct way of approaching the problem, which would hold for any mutually independent $X,Y,Z$ that have PDFs (even if the random variables are not exponentially distributed), is to condition on all possible values of $Y$: \begin{align} P[X<Y<Z] &= \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} P[X<Y<Z|Y=y]f_Y(y)dy\\ &=\int_{-\infty}^{-\infty} P[X<y<Z|Y=y]f_Y(y)dy\\ &=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}P[X<y<Z]f_Y(y)dy\\ &=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} P[X<y]P[y<Z]f_Y(y)dy \end{align} Now if we use the properties of the exponential PDF we get \begin{align} P[X<Y<Z]&=\int_0^{\infty} (1-e^{-\lambda_Xy})e^{-\lambda_Zy}\lambda_Ye^{-\lambda_Yy}dy\\ &=\lambda_Y\int_0^{\infty} e^{-(\lambda_Y+\lambda_Z)y}dy - \lambda_Y\int_0^{\infty}e^{-(\lambda_X+\lambda_Y+\lambda_Z)y}dy\\ &=\frac{\lambda_Y}{\lambda_Y+\lambda_Z} - \frac{\lambda_Y}{\lambda_X+\lambda_Y+\lambda_Z}\\ &=\frac{\lambda_Y}{\lambda_Y+\lambda_Z}\cdot \frac{\lambda_X}{\lambda_X+\lambda_Y+\lambda_Z} \end{align} which is the same answer as before.

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ Strictly speaking, here I am using that a random variable $H$ is independent of an event $A$ if $H$ and $1_A$ are independent random variables (where $1_A$ is the indicator random variable). In practice, if $P[A]>0$, this just means $P[H\leq h|A] = P[H\leq h]$ for all $h \in \mathbb{R}$. $\endgroup$
    – Michael
    Commented Jun 3, 2023 at 22:36
  • $\begingroup$ Okay I understand second solution. About first, why is $P[X<Y<Z] = P[Y<Z]P[X<\min[Y, Z] | Y<Z]$ and why $P[Y<Z]P[X<T|Y<Z] =P[Y<Z]P[X<T]$ $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 3, 2023 at 23:05
  • $\begingroup$ Here I am using $P[A \cap B ] = P[A]P[B|A]$. So $A = \{Y<Z\}$ and $B = \{X<Y\}$. So $$P[A\cap B] = P[Y<Z]P[X<Y|Y<Z] = P[Y<Z]P[X<\min[Y,Z]|Y<Z]$$ Also recall that $(X,T)$ is independent of $\{Y<Z\}$ so the event $\{X<T\}$ is independent of $\{Y<Z\}$. $\endgroup$
    – Michael
    Commented Jun 5, 2023 at 1:07

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .