I need to prove:
If $\sum(a_n + b_n)$ is convergent and $\displaystyle{\lim_{n \to \infty}a_n = 0}$ then the series $$ a_1 + b_1 + a_2 + b_2 + \cdots $$ is convergent.
I was trying to use Cauchy's convergence test but I am feeling like I am missing something and I will be happy if someone can confirm my proof.
Proof: We need to show that for every $\varepsilon > 0$ there is a natural number $N$ such that:
$$|a_{n+1}+b_{n+1}+\cdots +a_{n+p}+b_{n+p} +a_{n+p+1}|<\varepsilon $$
holds for all $n > N$ and all $p \ge 1$. That's because we know the series $\sum(a_n + b_n)$ is convergent and therefore by Cauchy's convergence test for every $\varepsilon > 0$ there is a natural number $N$ such that:
$$|a_{n+1}+b_{n+1}+\cdots +a_{n+p}+b_{n+p}|<\varepsilon $$
holds for all $n > N$ and all $p \geq 1$.
From what we have just mentioned we can deduce that for every $\varepsilon/2 > 0$ there is a natural number $N_1$ such that:
$$|a_{n+1}+b_{n+1}+\cdots +a_{n+p}+b_{n+p}|<\frac{\varepsilon}{2} $$
holds for all $n > N_1$ and all $p \geq 1$.
Moreover from the fact $\lim_{n \to \infty} a_n = 0$, we can deduce that for every $\varepsilon/2 > 0$ there is a natural number $N_2$ such that:
$$|a_n| < \frac{\varepsilon}{2} \qquad\text{for all } n > N_2.$$
Let us define $N_3 = \max\{ N_1, N_2 \} $, then for all $n > N_3$ and for all $p \geq 1$:
\begin{align*} &|a_{n+1}+b_{n+1}+\cdots +a_{n+p}+b_{n+p} +a_{n+p+1}| \\ &\leq |a_{n+1}+b_{n+1}+\cdots +a_{n+p}+b_{n+p}| + |a_{n+p+1}| \\ &< \frac{\varepsilon}{2} + \frac{\varepsilon}{2} = \varepsilon \end{align*}
I will be grateful for any comments for my proof, many thanks.