I was watching MIPT lection on math in russian
It was stated there that $$\forall \alpha,\beta\in\mathbb{R}, \alpha<\beta, \exists r\in\mathbb{Q}: \alpha<r<\beta$$
(some article on internet claims that this is true for $\mathbb{R}\backslash\mathbb{Q}$ as well rat_dense.pdf)
That is ok
But then it is proven (in video) that
if $$\forall\alpha,\beta\in\mathbb{R},\\ \forall\varepsilon\in\mathbb{Q},\varepsilon>0,\\ \exists S_1,S_2\in\mathbb{Q}:S_1<\alpha<S_2, S_1<\beta<S_2,S_2-S_1<\varepsilon$$
then $\alpha=\beta$
it is proven by assuming $\alpha\neq\beta$ (case of $\alpha<\beta$) which mean that there can be two rational numbers between them $r_1,r_2\in\mathbb{Q}, S_1<\alpha<r_1<r_2<\beta<S_2$, and difference of that rational numbers is rational number and $S_2-S_1>r_2-r_1>0$ and if $\varepsilon=r_2-r_1$ then $S_2-S_1<\varepsilon$ will fail, which proves that $\alpha=\beta$
But now I lost. If I understand correctly $\mathbb{Q}\subset\mathbb{R}$ so it is correct that $S_1,S_2\in\mathbb{R}$ as well, which mean that if there can be 1 number between them then there can any amount of $\mathbb{Q}$ or $\mathbb{R}\backslash\mathbb{Q}$ which contradicts $\alpha=\beta$ and $S_1<S_2$, it seems to me that $S_1=S_2$ but that will cuase whole stetement to fail. I don't understand this.