Suppose we adopt the following definition of continuity:
DEFINITION: Let $f$ be a function defined in a neighbourhood of a given point $a$. We say that $f$ is continuous at $a$ if $$ \lim_{x \to a}f(x)=f(a) \, . $$
Consider the function $f(x)=1/x$. Since the domain of $f$ is $\mathbb{R}\setminus\{0\}$, the question 'is $f$ continuous at $0$?' seems non-sensical. The definition of continuity only applies when the function is actually defined at the point under consideration. Because of this, I have seen many contributors on MSE write 'the function $f$ is neither continuous nor discontinuous at $0$'. However, I feel uncomfortable making such a statement. To me, the question itself doesn't make any sense, and so it's not even possible to say that the function is neither continuous nor discontinuous. Rather, nothing can made of the question. So does it make sense to say '$f$ is neither continuous nor discontinuous at $0$?'
I'm not very familiar with logic, but I wonder whether it makes sense to argue that the statement '$f$ is continuous at $0$' does not have a truth value, as it is non-sensical.