I am a bit confused about simplifying $\binom{n}{j} \cdot (n - j)$ when $j = n$.
If we simply plug $j = n$, we get $\binom{n}{n} \cdot 0 = 0$.
But if we first perform a cancellation of the $(n-j)$, w'd get
$$ \frac{n!}{j!(n-j)!} (n-j) = \frac{n!}{j! (n-j-1)!} $$
and then substituting $j = n$, we get
$$ \frac{n!}{n! (n - n - 1)!} = \frac{1}{(-1)!} $$
But this is undefined. I don't see what's wrong with the first result, but I also don't see what's wrong with the second result. Though, we can only take the factorial for numbers $ \geq 0$. So $(n - j)!$ should actually be $(n - j) \cdot (n-j-1) \ldots 1$. So I'm actually not sure what the term $\frac{n-j}{(n-j)!}$ should become for $j = n$. Based on the first expression, I guess it should become zero. But how?