Suppose random variable $ Y_{il} $ has the expectation:
$E(Y_{il}) = \int E(Y_{il} | Z_i= z)P^{Z_i}(dz)$
I am given that
$ E(Y_{il} | Z_i= z) = 1-exp(-\lambda_izB) $
Thus we get end up with the following equation for the Expectation.
$E(Y_{il}) = \int (1-exp(-\lambda_izB)P^{Z_i}(dz))$
Skipping over the constants $\lambda_i, B$ because they are irrelevant to the question.
Suppose that $Zi$ ~ $\gamma(\theta,\frac{1}{\theta}) $, and $P^{Z_i} $ is the probability distribution for Zi.
My Question: Because in the conditional expectation we condition on $Z_i= z$, Does this mean that our probability distribution also in terms of $Z_i= z$ or just a generic random variable $Z_i$?
Apologies if this is a stupid question.