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Using combinatorial argument to prove that $${ n\brack 3}=\frac{1}{2}\left(n-1\right)!\left[\left(H_{n-1}\right)^{2}-H_{n-1}^{\left(2\right)}\right]$$

Where ${ n\brack k}$ denotes Stirling numbers of the first kind and $ H_{n}^{\left(m\right)}$ is the generalized harmonic number.


It should be shown that the number of permutations on $[n]$ with $3$ cycles is counted by the right-hand side. Assume the first element in each one of the cycles is the least element contained in that cycle and that the cycles are ordered increasingly according to their first element (the leftmost element is considered as the first element).

$$(a_{1}...a_{j_1})(a_{j_1+1}...a_{j_2})(a_{j_2+1}...n)$$

Based on the assumption $a_1=1$ and $1\le j_{1}\le n-2$, let's call the leftmost cycle left cycle and the two other right cycles. Summing all over possible ways to distribute the remaining $n-1$ elements to three cycles gives the following summation:

$$\sum_{\;\;\;\;\;\;k_{2},k_3\ge1,\\ k_{1}+k_{2}+k_{3}=n-1}^{ }\binom{n-1}{k_1}\binom{n-1-k_1}{k_2}\binom{n-1-k_1-k_2}{k_3}(k_1)!(k_2-1)!(k_3-1)!$$

$$=\left(n-1\right)!\sum_{\;\;\;\;\;\;k_{2},k_3\ge1,\\ k_{1}+k_{2}+k_{3}=n-1}^{ }\frac{1}{k_{2}k_{3}}$$

Where $k_1$ is the left cycle and $k_2,k_3$ are the right cycles.

But I don't know how to continue, it would be appreciated if someone helps me.

Besides I like to know how much of my work is right.

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  • $\begingroup$ Why are you separating for $2$ in the cycle or not in the cycle? Usually one does separations like that when one sees addition(disjoint union combinatorially). $\endgroup$
    – Phicar
    Commented Oct 4, 2020 at 13:30

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Notice that when you pick the elements in the cycle, you are intuitively giving them an order. So you have to divide by $2$ your expression.

Now, to keep it going, notice that a partition of the form $k_1+k_2+k_3=n-1$ where $k_1,k_2>0$ can be expressed as $n_1=k_2,n_2=k_2+k_1,n_3=k_3,$ notice that $1\leq n_1<n_2\leq n-1$ and so you can express your last expression as $$\sum _{\substack{k_1+k_2+k_3=n-1\\k_1,k_2>0}}\frac{1}{k_1k_2}=\sum _{1\leq n_1<n_2\leq n-1}\frac{1}{n_1\cdot (n_2-n_1)}.$$
Use partial fractions to show that this is actually $$2\sum _{1\leq n_1<n_2\leq n-1}\frac{1}{n_1\cdot n_2}.$$ Edit: $$\sum _{1\leq n_1<n_2\leq n-1}\frac{1}{n_1\cdot (n_2-n_1)}=\sum _{1\leq n_1<n_2\leq n-1}\frac{1}{n2}\cdot \left (\frac{1}{n_1}+\frac{1}{n_2-n_1}\right )=\sum _{1\leq n_1<n_2\leq n-1}\frac{1}{n_1\cdot n_2}+\sum _{1\leq n_1<n_2\leq n-1}\frac{1}{n_2\cdot (n_2-n_1)},$$ but doing another change of variable, mainly $m_2=n_2,m_1=n_2-n_1$ one sees that $1\leq m_1<m_2\leq n-1$ and so $$\sum _{1\leq n_1<n_2\leq n-1}\frac{1}{n_1\cdot (n_2-n_1)}=2\sum _{1\leq n_1<n_2\leq n-1}\frac{1}{n_1\cdot n_2}$$

Meanwhile, in the alternative universe of the RHS, you have that $$\left (H_{n-1}\right )^2-H^{(2)}_{n-1}=\sum _{1\leq n_1,n_2\leq n-1}\frac{1}{n_1\cdot n_2}-\sum _{1\leq n_1=n_2\leq n-1}\frac{1}{n_1\cdot n_2}=2\sum _{1\leq n_1<n_2\leq n-1}\frac{1}{n_1\cdot n_2}.$$

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  • $\begingroup$ @45465 You are right and I have explained the partial fraction. $\endgroup$
    – Phicar
    Commented Oct 5, 2020 at 12:52
  • $\begingroup$ @45465 Do the change of variable proposed i.e., $m_2=n_2,m_1=n_2-n_1$ $\endgroup$
    – Phicar
    Commented Oct 5, 2020 at 13:26
  • $\begingroup$ @45465 so $m_2=n_2$ and $m_1=n_2-n_1$ gives that $m_1<m_2$ and further $1\leq m_1$ and $m_2\leq n-1.$ Agreed? Also, this change of variable is injective because is, basically, fixing $m_2$ and going backwards with $m_1.$ So this is a valid change of variable and you get what you want. In your double summation notation I would do it backwards. $$\sum _{n_2=1}^{n-1}\sum _{n_1=1}^{n_2-1}\frac{1}{n_2(n_2-n_1)}=\sum _{n_2=1}^{n-1}\sum _{m_1=1}^{n_2-1}\frac{1}{n_2m_1}.$$ $\endgroup$
    – Phicar
    Commented Oct 5, 2020 at 13:47

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