From what I have learnt, a point of inflection of a curve is, by definition, a point where the curve changes concavity.
The Simple Case
Thus, if, for a point, $c$, on a given function, $f(x)$, $f'(c) = f''(c) = 0$ and $f'''(c) \neq 0$, then $c$ is a point of inflection. I believe I understand the explanation for this, as, by definition, the second derivative describes concavity, so the third would necessarily describe the rate of change of concavity. Then, since $f'(c) = f''(c) = 0$ and $f'''(c) \neq 0$, we can conclude that the rate of change of the second derivative is non-zero, so concavity is changing and $c$ is a point of inflection. Please feel free to correct me if my explanation for this is wrong!
The General Case
However, on doing a little more research, I found out that this phenomenon can actually be generalised as follows: If $f(x)$ is $k$ times continuously differentiable in a certain neighborhood of a point $x$ with $k$ odd and $k ≥ 3$, while $f^{(n)}(x_0) = 0$ for $n = 2, …, k − 1$ and $f^{(k)}(x_0) ≠ 0$, then $f(x)$ has a point of inflection at $x_0$.
Questions
I do not understand how to explain this, since I thought that only the third derivative (and not other higher-order derivatives) describes rate of change of concavity, so I have the following four questions:
How do we generalise my observation about the feature of the third derivative to any odd-numbered derivative (below the second)?
Why does this generalisation only apply to odd-numbered derivatives (below the second)? In other words, why does it not apply to even-numbered derivatives (below the second)?
I also know that there can be inflection points where the second derivative is undefined. How, then, do we confirm that there is an inflection point there? Is the fact that the second derivative is undefined a sufficient condition?
As an extension to my third question, what if the second derivative is defined and equals zero at the particular point, but the third derivative is undefined? How, then, do we confirm that there is an inflection point there?
Background
Perhaps I might add that I am currently taking a introductory module in calculus at university level, so my level of knowledge about calculus at present may not be in-depth enough to understand the sophisticated explanations that I expect would be coming my way. I have learnt IVT, EVT, Rolle's Theorem, MVT, Cauchy's MVT and L'Hopital's Rule, but that is about it as far as theorems are concerned, so I would greatly appreciate it if there are any intuitive/"lower-level" explanations to this :)