I came across something seemingly trivial, but I don't know why this mistake happens.
We have the HOMFLY-polynomial $P(L)\in\mathbb{Z}[l^{\pm1},m^{\pm1}]$ for oriented links $L$, which satisfies:
1) Normalization: $P(unknot)=1$
2) Skein-relation: $lP(L_{+})+l^{-1}P(L{-})=-mP(L_{0})$
for $L_{+,-,0}$ a knot diagram differing in one crossing by over-/under-/no crossing. (Lickorish-Millet-version)
On the other hand, we have the Jones-polynomial $V(L)\in\Bbb{Z}[t^{\pm1/2}]$ with similar properties:
1) Normalization: $V(unknot)=1$
2) Skein-relation: $t^{-1}V(L_{+})-tV(L{-})=(t^{1/2}-t^{-1/2})V(L_{0})$
Now, as the HOMFLY-polynomial is a generalization of the Jones-polynomial, we can (according to my class and Wikipedia) do the following substitution:
$$V(t)=P(l=t^{-1},m=t^{-1/2}-t^{1/2})$$
When I try to substitute this directly in the HOMFLY Skein-relation, I end up with the wrong sign in front of the $tV(L_{-})$ in the JONES Skein-relation.
Can anybody tell me, whether I have done a stupid Algebra mistake, or have overlooked something that flips the sign during the substitution?
Much obliged
Nik