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$\newcommand{\N}{\mathbb{N}} \newcommand{\R}{\mathbb{R}}$

I know you can prove the first proposition with a variation of Cantor's diagonal argument. Is the following a sufficiently rigorous or even correct proof too?

Consider the interval $(0,1)$ in the real numbers. The decimal places of each number in this interval are countable, as each decimal place is located at a position with a natural number valued index. For each number

$$r = 0 \cdot 10^{0} + k_1 \cdot 10^{-1} + k_2 \cdot 10^{-2} + \dots \in (0,1) \text{ where $k_i \in \{0,1, \dots, 9\}$}$$

it holds true, that the number

$$ n = k_1 \cdot 10^{1} + k_2 \cdot 10^{2} + \dots \in \N$$

corresponds to $r$'s decimal places digit by digit (edit: in reverse order). But

$$\{n\} \in \mathcal{P}(\N)$$

So therefore there exists an injection

$$(0,1) \rightarrowtail \mathcal{P}(\N)$$

which maps each $r$ onto that $\{n\}$ the $n$ of which digit by digit corresponds to the decimal places of $r$. (edit: in reverse order) Hence there are at least as many elements in $\mathcal{P}(\N)$ as in $(0,1)$. But $(0,1)$ is uncountably infinite, so $\mathcal{P}(\N)$ too must be uncountable.

This certainly is not very pretty, as it argues based on the string representations of the numbers rather than the numbers themselves, but is it even valid to do this?

Another doubt I have about this stems from the fact that I think you can also argue the following:

The set $M = \{S \in \mathcal{P} (\mathbb{N}) \mid S \text{ is finite} \}$ also includes the elements $\{n_i\}$ that we just used to argue that $\mathcal{P}(\N)$ is uncountable. $M$ includes these $\{n_i\}$ because these are finite sets. So therefore $M$ would be uncountable by the above argument. Which it is not.

So somewhere in here is an error. Is it in the first proof or the second?

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    $\begingroup$ Using your argument, what is the set you are assigning to $1/9$? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 4, 2017 at 4:14
  • $\begingroup$ The set $\{11111 \dots\}$. Why? That set is a singleton in $\mathcal{P}(\mathbb{N})$ is it not? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 4, 2017 at 4:17
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    $\begingroup$ No, clearly it is not. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 4, 2017 at 4:18
  • $\begingroup$ I'm confused. It looks like you're mapping each number in the interval $(0,1)$ to a one-element set $\{x\}\in\mathcal P(\mathbb N).$ Is that right? So you're actually showing that the set of all one-element subsets of $\mathbb N$ is uncountable? $\endgroup$
    – bof
    Commented Nov 4, 2017 at 4:18
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    $\begingroup$ How are you defining $11111\dots$? As the decimal digits in $1/9$ are unending, it seems you're referring to a number written as an infinite sequence of $1$'s, but that isn't a natural number. $\endgroup$
    – theyaoster
    Commented Nov 4, 2017 at 4:50

2 Answers 2

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that the number n=k1⋅101+k2⋅102+⋯∈N corresponds to r 's decimal places digit by digit (edit: in reverse order).

But $r$ has an infinite number of digits. You can not reverse an infinite sequence. (What would be the first element).

The only elements that are "reversible" are the finite decimals (or the periodic decimals), i.e. the rationals. Hence you don't have an injection of $(0,1)$ into the power set but an injection of the rational numbers in $(0,1)$ into the power set and only into the subset of the Power set that has only finite sets as elements.

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Here I'll prove a fact which can be used to prove your result.

$\mathcal{P}_n (\Bbb{N})=\{{S\subset \Bbb{N} | \text{card}(S)=n }\}$ is countable for any $n\in\Bbb{N}$.

Consider the natural function $\Bbb{N}^n\to\cup_{1\le k\le n}\mathcal{P}_k (\Bbb{N})$ given by $(x_1, x_2, \cdots,x_n)\to \{x_1, x_2, \cdots,x_n\}.$ This is clearly surjective and therefore $$\text{card}(\mathcal{P}_n(\Bbb{N}))\le\text{card}(\cup_{1\le k\le n}\mathcal{P}_k (\Bbb{N}))\le\text{card}(\Bbb{N}^n)=\text{card}(\Bbb{N}).$$

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  • $\begingroup$ That position is not a natural number, though, so I am not sure what this proves. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 4, 2017 at 4:17
  • $\begingroup$ @AndrésE.Caicedo: I found my silly mistake and thank you for your help. What do you think about my edited answer? $\endgroup$
    – Bumblebee
    Commented Nov 4, 2017 at 4:46
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, that's essentially fine. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 4, 2017 at 4:49
  • $\begingroup$ @AndrésE.Caicedo: Also, I think we can reconstruct the previous construction considering the sum of elements of $S$ as: Consider all sets with sum of its elements is $1,$ arrange them in lexicographically. Then consider all sets with element sum $2$ and do the same ordering. Repeat the process infinitely. Now we have a unique (countable) arrangement of $\{S \in \mathcal{P} (\mathbb{N}) | S \text{ is finite} \},$ aren't we? $\endgroup$
    – Bumblebee
    Commented Nov 4, 2017 at 5:15

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