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I'll just give this simple example to illustrate my point:

There exists a real number $x$ such that for every real number $y$, we have $xy=y$.

If I wish to prove this statement in a non-constructive way, that is to say, without explicitly assigning to $x$ the value $1$ and thereby proving the statement, I don't know how to do it.

My first problem arises in translating the sentence into logical connectives. I could say:

$$(\exists x )[x \in \mathbb{R} \, \land \forall y(y \in \mathbb{R} \implies xy=y) ]$$

But then, how could I take - for example - something like the contrapositive of the implication when it's all embedded in these quantifiers, not to mention the conjunction? Surely I can't just take the contrapositive of the embedded implication as if it were a standalone implication, considering all the intertwined connectives and quantifiers surrounding it?

Edit: Allow me to add in this quick edit. My problem is in part that I have no clue how I would go about deriving a contradiction from the negated statement above. If I wish to do a proof by contradiction, I first negate the above expression to the shorthand $\forall x \in \mathbb{R}, \exists y \in \mathbb{R}, xy \neq y$. However, what's next? I presume it would start off like:

Let $x$ be an arbitrary real number. Then...

But I don't quite understand what I would do in this particular case.

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    $\begingroup$ Technically you can just take the contrapositive all the way inside but it does you no good here. You need to use some property of $R$, which would depend on where R came from (Cauchy completion, Dedekind cuts, axioms, ...) $\endgroup$
    – Ian
    Commented Sep 25, 2017 at 16:02
  • $\begingroup$ @Ian: Since the expression the OP gives is phrased entirely in the language of the (ring of) real numbers, it should be independent of the construction used. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 25, 2017 at 16:09
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    $\begingroup$ @CliveNewstead In all constructions it amounts to constructing 1 and checking that it is an identity for the construction used, so the basic structure is always the same. But the way you do that depends a little on the construction used. In particular it is free if R is defined to be a field from the start. $\endgroup$
    – Ian
    Commented Sep 25, 2017 at 16:11
  • $\begingroup$ Your target claim is not true if you replace "real number" by "even integer". So in order to hope for a proof you cannot depend on just the logical shape of the claim -- you have to use something that you already know makes the real numbers different from the even integers. And therefore you need to tell us which axioms, definitions, or assumptions about the real numbers in particular you have. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 25, 2017 at 16:21

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I'm not sure why you'd want to prove a statement nonconstructively if a constructive proof is available, as is the case in this example, but in any case, a general tactic would be to double-negate the entire expression, commute the inner negation operator, and prove the resulting (equivalent) statement by contradiction.

In your examples, the statement is $$\exists x \in \mathbb{R},\, \forall y \in \mathbb{R},\, xy=x$$ Double-negating the expression, we obtain the equivalent expression: $$\neg \neg (\exists x \in \mathbb{R},\, \forall y \in \mathbb{R},\, xy=x)$$ Commuting the inner negation operator, we obtain the equivalent expression: $$\neg (\forall x \in \mathbb{R},\, \exists y \in \mathbb{R},\, xy \ne x)$$ So now, your task is to assume $\forall x \in \mathbb{R},\, \exists y \in \mathbb{R},\, xy \ne x$ and derive a contradiction.

Note that I've used $\forall x \in \mathbb{R},\, p(x)$ and $\exists x \in \mathbb{R},\, q(x)$ to abbreviate $\forall x (x \in \mathbb{R} \Rightarrow p(x))$ and $\exists x (x \in \mathbb{R} \wedge q(x))$, as is standard.

To address your specific question about contrapositives: you can replace any subformula of a formula by an equivalent subformula, and you'll obtain an equivalent formula. Since the contrapositive of an implication is equivalent to the original implication, this means that you can replace any implications you like by their contrapositives, even if they're embedded in a larger formula.

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  • $\begingroup$ The OP had a typo that you didn't fix. $\endgroup$
    – Ian
    Commented Sep 25, 2017 at 16:08
  • $\begingroup$ @CliveNewstead Right, but my problem is in part that I have no clue how I would go about deriving a contradiction from $\forall x \in \mathbb{R}, \exists y \in \mathbb{R}, xy \neq y$. Specifically, I'm familiar with the concept but not with the execution in this particular example. $\endgroup$
    – Ius Klesar
    Commented Sep 25, 2017 at 16:10
  • $\begingroup$ @IusKlesar: In this case, you'd probably constructor a contradiction by showing that the formula $\exists y \in \mathbb{R},\, xy \ne y$ is false when $x=1$. (But this amounts to giving a constructive proof of the original statement.) $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 25, 2017 at 19:18

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