I'm looking for a hint regarding the following proof, I've played with a few approaches, mainly rewriting the conditions as congruences and equations and toying with the algebra, but am having trouble connecting the dots. Thanks! -
Consider $n = p_1p_2 \dotsc p_s$ with $p$ primes, such that $\forall_i \ \ (p_i-1) \ | \ (n-1)$.
Show that $a^n \equiv a \ (\text{mod}\ n)$ for all $a$ ($1 \leq a \leq n -1$)