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Mathematical induction If p(n) is a statement involving the natural number n such that:
p(1) is true, and
p(k)$\Rightarrow$p(k+1) for any arbitrary natural number k, then p(n) is true for any natural number n.
Example 12 Prove by mathematical induction that
1+2+3+...+n= n(n+1)/2 for every natural number n
[Proof] Here p(n) represents the statement 1+2+3+...+n= n(n+1)/2
In particular p(1) represents 1 = (1ㆍ2)/2, which obviously is a true statement. Therefore, condition (1) for mathematical induction is satisfied.
To prove that condition (2) is satisfied, we assume that p(k), which is "1+2+3+...+k= k(k+1)/2" is true. Then add k+1 to both sides of this equality. We have
1+2+3+...+k+(k+1) = k(k+1)/2 + (k+1) = k(k+1)/2+ 2(k+1)/2 = (k+1)(k+2)/2
which shows that p(k+1) is true. We have now shown that the condition (1) and (2) of mathematical induction are satisfied. Therefore, by the principle of mathematical induction,
1+2+3+...+n= n(n+1)/2 is true for every natural number n"
Source: Set Theory by You-Feng Lin, Shwu-Yeng T. Lin
In the below proof, I have a question. I see "P(2) is true" is used instead of "p(1) is true" for the divisibility by a prime. But unlike from the above proof and the definition, why P(i) is divisible by a prime number for all integers i from 2 through k, rather than for some integer k≥2?
Source: Discrete Mathematics with Applications: Susanna S. Epp