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Suppose $X$ has a continuous, strictly increasing cdf $F$. Let $Y = F(X)$. What is the density of $Y$? Then let $U \sim unif(0,1)$ and let $X = F^{-1}(U)$. Show that $X\sim F$.

The first part seems like the density of $Y$ is just the pdf $f(X)$. The wording of the problem is confusing me though.

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    $\begingroup$ What does $X \sim F$ even mean? $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 4, 2015 at 19:33
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    $\begingroup$ I wish I knew... that's a huge part of why the wording/set up is confusing me so much. It doesn't seem to make sense to say that $X$ is distributed as $F$, a cdf. I was hoping there was another possible interpretation that I was missing. $\endgroup$
    – Craig
    Commented Apr 4, 2015 at 19:53
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    $\begingroup$ The notation $X\sim F$ might be slightly on the lax side but it is completely standard. Your comment sounds as if you had no textbook or lecture notes at your disposal and were trying to rediscover the subject through guesses. Is that so? $\endgroup$
    – Did
    Commented Apr 4, 2015 at 20:13
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    $\begingroup$ This is a classical problem. (The answer is used in computer simulation.) To start look at 1197188 on this site (beginning of answer). $\endgroup$
    – BruceET
    Commented Apr 4, 2015 at 20:32
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    $\begingroup$ Also, maybe look at 1208396 $\endgroup$
    – BruceET
    Commented Apr 4, 2015 at 20:38

1 Answer 1

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Since $F$ is continuous and monotone increasing, it has an inverse function $F^{-1}$, i.e. for any $t\in\mathbb R$, there is a unique number $F^{-1}(t)$ such that $F^{-1}(F(t)) = t$. Recall that the inverse of a monotone increasing function is also monotone increasing. We have $$\mathbb P(Y\leqslant t) = \mathbb P(F(X)\leqslant t). $$ Since $F$ takes values in $[0,1]$, it is clear that $\mathbb P(Y\leqslant t)=0$ for $t\leqslant 0$ and $\mathbb P(Y\leqslant t)=1$ for $t\geqslant 1$. For $t\in(0,1)$ we have $$\mathbb P(F(X)\leqslant t)=\mathbb P(F^{-1}(F(X))\leqslant F^{-1}(t)) = \mathbb P(X\leqslant F^{-1}(t)) = F(F^{-1}(t)) = t. $$ It follows that $$\mathbb P(Y\leqslant t)=t 1_{(0,1)}(t) + 1_{[1,\infty)}(t), $$ and therefore the density $g$ of $Y$ is the derivative of the above: $$g(y) = 1_{(0,1)}(t). $$ In other words, $Y$ has $\mathcal U(0,1)$ distribution.

For the second part, we have for any $t\in\mathbb R$ $$ \begin{align*} \mathbb P(X\leqslant t) &= \mathbb P(F^{-1}(U)\leqslant t)\\ &= \mathbb P(F(F^{-1}(U))\leqslant F(t))\\&=\mathbb P(U\leqslant F(t))\\&=\mathbb P(U\leqslant t)\\&= F(t). \end{align*} $$

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  • $\begingroup$ Why if F is monotonic increasing and continous, that implies that F has inverse? For example, consider F=1 on all $\mathbb{R}$ which is monotonic (and not stricly) increasing and is continuous, however F has no inverse in $\mathbb{R}$ $\endgroup$
    – HeMan
    Commented Jan 10, 2016 at 10:14
  • $\begingroup$ In this problem, we assumed that $F$ was strictly increasing, so $x<y$ implies $F(x)<F(y)$. $\endgroup$
    – Math1000
    Commented Jan 10, 2016 at 11:55

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