Timeline for Best Coordinate system - Lagrangian problem
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
12 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Jun 20 at 16:18 | history | edited | Turquoise Tilt | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
clarification
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Jun 20 at 8:59 | history | edited | Turquoise Tilt | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
improved title
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Jun 19 at 20:35 | history | edited | Turquoise Tilt | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 24 characters in body
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Jun 19 at 20:13 | answer | added | Egor Larionov | timeline score: 1 | |
Jun 19 at 19:06 | comment | added | Turquoise Tilt | @EgorLarionov what do you mean it's not a point? Could you elaborate further? Notation abuse left apart, related to my question do you have any thoughts? | |
Jun 19 at 18:58 | comment | added | Egor Larionov | That’s an abuse of notation. If you say $Q=(0,0,x)$, then it’s not a point. | |
Jun 19 at 17:57 | comment | added | Turquoise Tilt | @EgorLarionov I missed the part where $Q$ is linked to a line. The point $P$ in my new coordinate system isn't at $z=0$ since $z$ is no more a coordinate, I'm choosing the normal to the plane in the origin as last coordinate. | |
Jun 19 at 17:55 | history | edited | Turquoise Tilt | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
clarification
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Jun 19 at 17:24 | comment | added | Egor Larionov | First of all, I don’t think you should mix up spherical and Cartesian coordinates in the same problem arrangement. Second of all, the question clearly states the point $Q$ is attached at the origin. How do you get $x$ involved in the coordinates? Also, the first point you have is for some reason bound at $z=0$. How come? You know that $\Pi$ spans all the $z$-axis, don’t you? | |
Jun 19 at 16:53 | history | edited | Turquoise Tilt | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
clarification
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Jun 19 at 16:24 | history | edited | Turquoise Tilt | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
clarification
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Jun 19 at 16:18 | history | asked | Turquoise Tilt | CC BY-SA 4.0 |