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Jun 8 at 15:46 answer added Anixx timeline score: 0
Oct 24, 2022 at 10:24 comment added Julius Hamilton I think this is one of the best posts on Math SE, a very intuitive question often overlooked
Sep 2, 2021 at 14:55 answer added Samuel M. A. Luque timeline score: 0
Feb 11, 2015 at 18:57 history protected Asaf Karagila
Feb 3, 2014 at 19:36 comment added Cruncher @Steve314 This is why Qiaochu gave successful ad absurdum reasoning. He's saying that by the reasoning that you gave, you could also prove that there are more integers than integers, which is clearly false. Ergo the original reasoning is incorrect.
Jan 5, 2014 at 16:56 history edited Andrés E. Caicedo
edited tags
Apr 11, 2013 at 0:48 comment added Noah Snyder You may find helpful some of the answers to the similar question math.stackexchange.com/questions/398
Jul 31, 2010 at 21:45 comment added user510 @ShreevatsaR - yes, that's my point. Why should "size" mean "cardinality of the set"? Simple answer - it's the only way to get a meaningful answer. But if you approach the issue worrying about curves and areas, it's hard not to see a different sense of the word "size".
Jul 31, 2010 at 21:32 comment added ShreevatsaR Re edit: There's a confusion here between two distinct concepts of cardinality and measure. The cardinality of the set of points on a one-metre line segment and on a two-metre line is the same, but they have different measure (length, in this case). Similarly, the Hilbert space-filling curve fills all the points, but being a curve, it has measure 0 relative to the square it fills (it has length, but no area). The confusion arises because "size" is used loosely to refer to either concept.
Jul 31, 2010 at 21:22 history edited user510 CC BY-SA 2.5
Extra context - Hilbert curves
Jul 31, 2010 at 20:51 comment added user510 @Qiaochu Yuan - that had occured to me, but I thought trying to argue that there are more integers than integers or visa versa was well down the road to insanity ;-)
Jul 31, 2010 at 20:26 answer added Niel de Beaudrap timeline score: 6
Jul 31, 2010 at 20:17 comment added Qiaochu Yuan Second to last paragraph: you can also argue that there are potentially infinite integers for every single integer.
Jul 31, 2010 at 20:11 answer added mau timeline score: 3
Jul 31, 2010 at 20:09 answer added vanden timeline score: 2
Jul 31, 2010 at 20:08 vote accept CommunityBot
Jul 31, 2010 at 20:08 vote accept CommunityBot
Jul 31, 2010 at 20:08
Jul 31, 2010 at 20:04 answer added Lucky timeline score: 0
Jul 31, 2010 at 20:01 answer added Jason DeVito - on hiatus timeline score: 26
Jul 31, 2010 at 19:53 history edited Isaac CC BY-SA 2.5
edited tags; edited title
Jul 31, 2010 at 19:49 history asked user510 CC BY-SA 2.5