The passages of Luke 3:3 and Acts 2:38 have very similar language and according to Peter in Acts he is baptizing the same baptism as John, only in Jesus name.
Luke 3:3 says, "And he went into all the region around the Jordan, proclaiming a baptism of > repentance for the forgiveness of sins"
Acts 2:38 says, "Repent and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins, and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit"
Both verses speak about repentance and baptism and both verses say they are "for the forgiveness or remittance of sin"
So what does "for forgiveness of sins" mean.
Now Acts 2:38 is often interpreted to mean that the act of baptism is necessary to wash away sin, however given the same language in both verses that means that Johns baptism also washes away sin.
My question is, can this language be translated any other way that does not imply that baptism actually forgives sins or is when sins are forgiven.
