Let $X_1,\dots,X_n$ be real random variables such that $\alpha_1X_1+\dots+\alpha_nX_n=0$ for some unknown $\alpha_1,\dots,\alpha_n$. If $n=2$, one can study the strength of linear relationship by looking at the correlation $\rho_{X_1,X_2}=\frac{\mathbb{E}(X_1-\mu_1)(X_2-\mu_2)}{\sigma_1\sigma_2}$, where $\mu_i$ and $\sigma_i$ are the expected value and standard deviation of $X_i$, respectively. As expected, when I work with (a nice) data sample, I get $\rho_{X_1,X_2}\simeq 1$.
I wanted to generalise this idea to arbitrary $n$ by looking at the moment $\rho_{X_1,\dots,X_n}:=\frac{\mathbb{E}\left[\prod_{i=1}^n (X_i-\mu_i)\right]}{\prod_{i=1}^n\sigma_i}$ but when I work with data samples, I get $\rho_{X_1,\dots,X_n}\simeq 0$. What am I misunderstanding here?
This looks very similar to model selection and I was considering using the coefficient of multiple correlation $R^2$, but I don't have a distinguished dependent variable here and, in my experiments, the values of sample $R^2$ really depend on which $X_i$ is chosen to be the "dependent" variable.