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1d
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awarded | Yearling |
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1d
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awarded | Yearling |
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Jul
16 |
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awarded | Notable Question |
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Jul
13 |
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comment |
Are “your hearts” poetically portrayed as musical instruments in Ephesians 5:19? Thanks for your reply. According to the principle of “single meaning” in biblical exegesis, where a phrase does not mean two different things at the same time, would “in your hearts” in Ephesians 5:19 mean singing with heartfelt sincerity and devotion, rather than specifically “silently” or something else? |
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Jul
13 |
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awarded | Teacher |
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Jul
12 |
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awarded | Popular Question |
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Jul
12 |
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comment |
Are “your hearts” poetically portrayed as musical instruments in Ephesians 5:19? I think I understand. So my next question would be this: What does “singing in the heart” mean? Does it mean singing inwardly/silently or singing enthusiastically? |
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Jul
12 |
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answered | Using smart punctuation on Android keyboards just like iOS—is it possible? |
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Jul
12 |
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awarded | Student |
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Jul
11 |
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awarded | Editor |
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Jul
11 |
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revised |
Using smart punctuation on Android keyboards just like iOS—is it possible? edited title |
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Jul
11 |
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asked | Using smart punctuation on Android keyboards just like iOS—is it possible? |
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Jul
11 |
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awarded | Informed |
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Jul
11 |
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comment |
Are “your hearts” poetically portrayed as musical instruments in Ephesians 5:19? Thank you for your response! Just to confirm, your answer is “No” to the question of whether “your hearts” are poetically depicted as musical instruments, correct? |
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Jul
10 |
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asked | Are “your hearts” poetically portrayed as musical instruments in Ephesians 5:19? |
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Jun
25 |
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revised |
Does Jesus' teaching on marriage implicitly condemn polygamy as adulterous? added 24 characters in body; deleted 2 characters in body |
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Jun
25 |
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revised |
In what sense is divorce and remarriage "adultery" according to Jesus? added 15 characters in body |
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Jun
20 |
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awarded | Popular Question |
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Jun
13 |
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comment |
Are musical instruments included in Ephesians 5:19? I’m referring to whether BDAG portrays the “with or without instrumental accompaniment” sense as changing into a “sing exclusively” sense. Here’s the part I’m referencing: “In the LXX ψ. freq. means ‘sing’, whether to the accompaniment of a harp or (as usually) not (Ps 7:18; 9:12; 107:4 al.). This process continued until ἁμ. in Mod. Gk. means ‘sing’ exclusively; cf. ψάλτης = singer, chanter, w. no ref. to instrumental accompaniment” (emphasis added). Does this suggest the meaning stopped being the broad, “with or without accompaniment” sense, or am I misunderstanding BDAG’s wording here? |
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Jun
11 |
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Are musical instruments included in Ephesians 5:19? Good thought. Words can definitely change meaning in the common‐usage sense, moving away from their base/original meaning. Does BDAG suggest that the common usage of psallo in the NT was for vocal, a cappella singing? |