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En Ingles
(1) Juan doesn't tell me it. Juan no lo me dijo?
(2) Juan doesn't tell it to me. Juan no me lo dijo?
Both are correct in English (although #1 might not be "grammatically correct"?)

However, those both translate to - Juan no me lo dijo.
This is strange to me, as a non-native speaker
I suppose one could use

I suppose its similar to the case between using the future tense and "simple" future.<
eg. I'm going to eat the food. Voy a comer la comida.
and I will eat the food. Comeré la comida.
To an English speaker, these mean basically the same. A Spanish speaker uses those two differently, correct?

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  • In your first case I don't see any difference between your two sentences. However there's a difference between "voy a comer" and "comeré" which is rather like "goin to" vs "will" in English
    – user35179
    Commented Oct 31, 2023 at 1:18
  • I'm not sure what is your exact question. "Juan no lo me dijo" is not idiomatic. That's not the right order of the words, any native speaker would find that awkward. That part got nothing to do with difference ways of expressing that something is going to happen in the future. Both ways express basically the same but not exactly the same, like in English.
    – RubioRic
    Commented Oct 31, 2023 at 7:11
  • 2
    To me neither of your two English examples sounds like what I would normally here so it is a bit hard to see what the answer would be to your question about Spanish.
    – mdewey
    Commented Oct 31, 2023 at 13:42
  • 3
    Juan doesn't tell me it. is not good English. Juan didn't tell me the story. Juan doesn't tell me the scores (when I ask him.) The present tense is no me dice, not no me dijo, which is past tense.
    – Lambie
    Commented Oct 31, 2023 at 18:01

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