If you control all of the law holdings in an area then you get to decrease loyalty loss by two and if you control at least half then you get to decrease it by one. Now what I want to ask is that if a law holding is held by a vassal regent does the reigning regent count as controlling them for the sake of determining loyalty?
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asked Mar 23, 2022 at 11:53
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3\$\begingroup\$ Real-world historically, my liege's liege is not my liege, and I have no obligations to him, nor him to me. \$\endgroup\$– Jeff ZeitlinCommented Mar 23, 2022 at 13:34
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\$\begingroup\$ law holdings... you mean de jure holdings, e.g. holdings that are thought to belong to the title? \$\endgroup\$– TrishCommented Aug 27, 2023 at 9:20
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1 Answer
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In the "Book of Regency", page 38, in the section "A Final Word" (about Law holdings) we find: "While it may be easier and more practical to consider a province’s strongest law regent also its ruler, it isn’t entirely realistic or even more fun. As an historical/legendary example, think of Prince John and the Sheriff of Nottingham. Both worked toward the same, basic goals (the domination of England and the pursuit of Robin Hood), but both had different means and considerations for achieving their desires. Sometimes, even though the sheriff was the prince’s vassal, they came into conflict, got into each other’s way, and generally made the legends more fun than if they had been one entity."
I did not found a specific explanation in the books, so I stick with the quoted paragraph above, the vassal regent counts, if he wants to.
