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20 votes
8 answers
7k views

Why does the x86 not have an instruction to obtain its instruction pointer?

This has always confused me. Why can you not directly obtain the IP, and instead have to go through some odd assembly hoops such as calling a function whose only purpose is to push its own return ...
Michael Stachowsky's user avatar
25 votes
2 answers
4k views

Was leaving all xxxxxx11 opcodes unused on the 6502 a deliberate design choice?

The 6502, like many 8-bit processors, has a somewhat arcane opcode-mode restrictions. On most such processors, the restriction is a clear result of trying to pack a lot of instructions into a limited ...
supercat's user avatar
  • 37.6k
16 votes
3 answers
996 views

Why did instruction sets since the late 1970s seemingly stop including an "execute" instruction?

Many mainframe instruction set architectures (ISAs) in the 1960s included an Execute instruction, which would treat data as an instruction. I haven't found an architecture designed after 1976 which ...
Stavros Macrakis's user avatar