Some have accused Hamas of committing the genocide of Palestinians. While this specific accusation is more a matter of political rhetoric, and coming from the quarters no less extreme than Hamas themselves, I wonder whether the actions of Hamas can be formally prosecuted as a genocide against Palestinian people (or another crime against humanity.)
Indeed, the Hamas leaders on many occasions stated their intention to cause numerous Palestinian deaths. The latest example is this statement by the Hamas representative in Lebanon:
"Hamas is a national liberation movement. National liberation movements do not keep count of martyrs, wounded people, or prisoners, on the path for liberation. If we, as a national liberation movement, or as the Palestinian people who strive to liberate our land, start calculating how many thousands of martyrs there are every time we go to war, we would not go to war and there would be no resistance. How did Algeria liberate its land? It sacrificed millions of martyrs. How did Vietnam liberate its land from America? Three millions Vietnamese were killed in the war for liberation. Even Russia in WWII sacrificed 20 million Russians in the war against the Nazis.
"If you want to liberate your land, you do not count the number of martyrs and victims, because you strive to liberate your land. We consider Palestine to be a sacred and blessed land. We are martyrdom-seekers. We have not seen any family member of the martyrs in Gaza complaining about the resistance. All the families of the martyrs say that this is a sacrifice for the resistance. One mother of a martyr said: 'I hope God gives me 12 more boys, so that they can be martyred while defending Palestine, Jerusalem, and the Al-Aqsa Mosque.
A statement by Israeli leaders calling to kill many Palestinians or deliberately targeting Palestinian civilians would be considered a call for a genocide (as well as similar statements by Hamas about Israelis, like their 1988 charter). Indeed, this is very much what the South Africa's case against Israel is based on - see, e.g., The question of intent: Discourse as evidence in the case against Israel).
Is Hamas immune from a similar charge merely because they call and act with intention of killing their own people?
Remarks
- Note that the question is not about war crimes like using human shields or preventing civilians to flee, which Hamas is routinely accused of, but which may not constitute a policy. The question is about the intent to commit a crime against the Palestinian people as a whole.
- E.g., the October 7 attacks had no military purpose, their only intent was to cause a high number of Israeli casualties and provoke Israeli military response. The high number of Palestinian casualties after such an attack is inevitable, even if Israel responds within the limits of the international law (the fact that Israeli actions are challenged in court, doesn't change it.)