The UK experiencing a lot of strikes at the moment (2022/3) and there have been tentative references to a General Strike.
My impression is that historically that would have meant "strike by the manual labour pool", with anyone who worked a manual labour job being encouraged to strike in solidarity". So obviously miners etc., but also factory workers, farm labourers, etc. etc. i.e. including people who normally wouldn't be part of a union per se, and wouldn't normally consider strike action. (And ??? perhaps don't have a legal right to strike ???)
Obviously in the 1800s that pool of workers made up a large portion of the countries work-force, so a General Strike was a major blow to national GDP, which (I assume) was the point of a General Strike - a declaration from the "entire" workforce that they were collectively standing with and supporting the initial striking groups.
Nowadays that manual labour pool is a very much smaller part of the work force. But you might now consider including a lot of socio-economically similar jobs into the category - transport workers, retail staff, etc.
But what about Office Workers, would they be encouraged to be part of a General Strike?
Q: How would a General Strike work in the 21st Century, given the shift away from manual labour in the workforce?