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0 votes
1 answer
44 views

Is the Dirac adjoint in the representation dual to Dirac spinor?

As seen in this Wikipedia page, the Lorentz group is not compact and the Dirac spinor (spin $\frac{1}{2}$) representation is NOT unitary. Therefore, the complex conjugate representation does NOT ...
Keith's user avatar
  • 1,669
0 votes
0 answers
52 views

Trying to solve the energy levels of a spin 1/2 particle in a one-dimensional box using Dirac Equation

I was studying the problem I asked above in the title and found the article P Alberto et al 1996 Eur. J. Phys. 17 19. The wave function inside the walls is: $$ \psi(z)=B\ exp(ikz) \left[\begin{array}{...
Joao Pedro Medeiros's user avatar
2 votes
0 answers
98 views

How to motivate spinors from the Dirac equation? [closed]

I am trying to motivate spinors by making sure the Dirac equation is relativistically invariant (and it suffices to discuss just the Dirac operator). Let $\{ e_i \}$ be an orthonormal frame and $x^i$ ...
Integral fan's user avatar
2 votes
0 answers
72 views

Interpretation of "spin-1/2" in classical Dirac field

I emphasize that the proceeding is purely classical physics. Consider the Grassmann-valued field (where $\mathcal{N}$ is a Grassmann number), which is a solution to the Dirac equation, given by $$\psi(...
Silly Goose's user avatar
  • 2,676
0 votes
1 answer
94 views

Why is the derivative necessary to connect left and right-hand spinors?

I am studying Weyl and Dirac spinors. Suppose we have two Weyl fermions $\eta, \chi$ transforming under $(1/2,0)$ representation of the Lorentz group. I learned that to construct Lorentz invariant ...
IGY's user avatar
  • 1,783
-2 votes
1 answer
103 views

Wavefunction spinor in Dirac equation

Which is the physical interpretation that in Dirac's equation the wavefunction is a spinor?
appliedSciences's user avatar
0 votes
0 answers
561 views

Bilinear covariants of Dirac field

In the book "Advanced quantum mechanics" by Sakurai there is a section (3.5) about bilinear covariants, however i can't really find a definition of these objects, neither in the book nor ...
dallla's user avatar
  • 59
8 votes
3 answers
2k views

What are Dirac spinors and why did relativistic quantum mechanics need them?

I have a good grasp of the Schrödinger equation and the basics of special relativity But the Dirac equation is alien to me. What are Dirac spinors and why did Dirac use them?
user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
97 views

What does quantization of spin have to do with spinors?

A fermion has half-integer spin. In the context of the theory, this means its wavefunction is made of spinors: geometric objects which, under Lorentz rotations, transform in such a way that they ...
Adam Herbst's user avatar
  • 2,475
3 votes
1 answer
187 views

What is the relationship between spinors and rotating motion geometrically?

Spinors are famously like spinning tops, but not actually like spinning tops since they are point particles and thus cannot rotate around their axis. It is easy to show algebraically how spinors must ...
user438236's user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
90 views

Lorentz boost property of gamma matrices

I was watching this video where he boosted the Dirac equation. He reached this equation: $$S^{-1}(\Lambda)\gamma^\mu S(\Lambda)=\Lambda^\mu{}_\nu \gamma^\nu$$ My question is since $\gamma^\mu$ is a ...
Habouz's user avatar
  • 1,324
2 votes
0 answers
146 views

Angular-momentum of the Dirac spinor theory

The standard Dirac action $$ S = \int d^4 x \bar \psi (i \gamma^\mu \partial_\mu - m) \psi $$ is invariant under Lorentz transformation. In David Tong's lecture note, eq (4.96) lists that the ...
Lelouch's user avatar
  • 669
0 votes
1 answer
146 views

Quantum Field Theory Unitary Transformations

I am currently reading through Itzyskon and Zuber for my quantum field theory class, and I came across this regarding the unitary transformations of the Dirac bispinors in chapter 2. They show that ...
user132849's user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
160 views

To construct a Lorentz scalar we use $\psi^{\dagger}\gamma^{0}\psi$. Could we use $\gamma^{5}$ instead of $\gamma^{0}$ seen as both are Hermitian?

Both $\gamma^{0}$ and $\gamma^{5}$ are Hermitian, so could we replace $\gamma^{0}$ with $\gamma^{5}$ to construct a Lorentz scalar with the same properties as $\bar{\psi}\psi$?
sputnik44's user avatar
  • 115
0 votes
1 answer
1k views

Dirac spinor in the chiral basis

In the chiral basis, the gamma matrices take the form $$ \gamma^0=\begin{bmatrix}0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0\end{bmatrix}, \quad \gamma^j=\begin{bmatrix}0 & -\sigma^j \\ \sigma^j & 0\end{bmatrix} $$...
A Quantum Field Day's user avatar

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