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0 votes
0 answers
31 views

Why the Slavnov operator is self-adjoint? [duplicate]

In the context of BRST we can define the Slavnov operator $\Delta_{BRST}$ which generates BRST transformations. My lecture notes claim that $\Delta_{BRST}$ is self-adjoint, but I don't see why.
Alex's user avatar
  • 357
0 votes
2 answers
116 views

Do different bases of Fock space commute?

$\newcommand\dag\dagger$ Suppose we have a Fock space $\mathcal{F}$ with two different bases of creation and annihilation operators $\{a_\lambda, a^\dag_\lambda\}$ and $\{a_{\tilde \lambda}, a^\dag_{\...
zeroknowledgeprover's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
54 views

Choice of spacetime foliation while quantising a conformal field theory

I was reading Rychkov's EPFL lectures on $D\geq 3$ CFT (along with these set of TASI lectures) and in chapter 3, he starts discussing radial quantisation and OPE (operator product expansion). I ...
QFTheorist's user avatar
6 votes
4 answers
623 views

How can a QFT field act on particle states in Fock space?

Recently I asked a question that was considered a duplicate. However I felt that the related question didn't answer my doubts. After a bit of pondering I have realized the core of my discomfort with ...
Noumeno's user avatar
  • 4,577
0 votes
1 answer
67 views

Is integral of energy-momentum tensor in QFT over a region $R$ self-adjoint?

Consider a quantum field theory in flat 1+1D spacetime for simplicity. Let $T_{\mu\nu}$ be the conserved symmetric stress tensor. One writes operators by integrating the tensor over the whole space, ...
physicophilic's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
65 views

Parity operator action on quantized Dirac field

I am stuck on equation 3.124 on p.65 in Peskin and Schroeder quantum field theory book. There they are claiming that: $$P\psi(x)P=\displaystyle\int\frac{d^3p}{(2\pi)^3}\frac{1}{\sqrt{2E_{\bf p}}}\...
Joe's user avatar
  • 413
1 vote
3 answers
154 views

What does the state $a_k a_l^\dagger|0\rangle$ represent?

Consider the action of the operator $a_k a_l^\dagger$ on the vacuum state $$|{\rm vac}\rangle\equiv |0,0,\ldots,0\rangle,$$ the action of $a_l^\dagger$ surely creates one particle in the $l$th state. ...
Solidification's user avatar
1 vote
0 answers
75 views

What does a quantized field in QFT do? [duplicate]

I'm studying for an exam called Introduction to QFT. One of the main topics in this class is the quantized free fields. I can now find the fields that solve the Klein-Gordon equation and the Dirac ...
BBBZZZ's user avatar
  • 19
-3 votes
2 answers
107 views

Multi-particle Hamiltonian for the free Klein-Gordon field

The text I am reading (Peskin and Schroeder) gives the Hamiltonian for the free Klein-Gordon field as: $$H=\int {d^3 p\over (2\pi)^3}\; E_p\; a^{\dagger}_{\vec p}a_{\vec p}$$ This does not seem to be ...
Albertus Magnus's user avatar
-2 votes
1 answer
74 views

On creation annihilation operators of the free Klein-Gordon field [closed]

I want to calculate multiparticle states like $|\vec p,\vec p\rangle$ from $|0\rangle$. It seems that I would need to compute from things like: $a^{\dagger}_{\vec p}a^{\dagger}_{\vec p}|0\rangle$? It ...
Albertus Magnus's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
116 views

What's the exact definition of fields in conformal field theory?

For example we work with a 2d scalar field $\phi$. I guess $\phi$, $\partial_z\phi$, $\partial_{\bar z}\phi$ are fields, are there more? Is it true that all fields are in the form of $\partial_z^i\...
Peter Wu's user avatar
  • 249
4 votes
1 answer
91 views

State-Operator Correspondence and symmetry in CFT in general dimension

Let us assume to have a QFT ($\mathcal{L}$) with translational, Lorentz, scale and conformal invariance. I ask because we can, for example the free scalar free theory, canonically quantize the system ...
ssm's user avatar
  • 194
0 votes
1 answer
154 views

Peskin & Schroeder equation (7.2)

I found this completeness relation of momentum eigenstate $|\lambda_p\rangle$ Here $|\Omega\rangle$ is the vacuum, and $|\lambda_p\rangle$ represents the state with one particle labeled by $\lambda$ ...
FIA's user avatar
  • 1
2 votes
0 answers
77 views

LSZ theorem for trivial scattering

The $1\to1$ scattering amplitude is trivial and is given by (take massless scalars for simplicity) $$ \tag{1} \langle O(\vec{p}) O^\dagger(\vec{p}\,')\rangle = (2 | \vec{p}\,|) (2\pi)^{D-1} \delta^{(...
stringynonsense's user avatar
-1 votes
1 answer
249 views

What does the field operator $φ(x)$ do to the Fock space?

For simplicity: imagine a free, scalar theory, and a 1 particle universe. Spacetime: we have an operator $φ(x)$ defined everywhere on spacetime. Fock space: the space of states in which the particle ...
TrentKent6's user avatar

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