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-3 votes
1 answer
100 views

Some calculation in Schwartz's Quantum field theory eq. (16.39)

In Schwartz's Quantum field theory and the standard model, p.307 he derives a formula: $$ \Pi_2^{\mu \nu} = \frac{-2 e^2}{(4 \pi )^{d/2}}(p^2g^{\mu\nu}-p^{\mu}p^{\nu})\Gamma(2- \frac{d}{2}) \mu^{4-d} \...
Plantation's user avatar
3 votes
1 answer
130 views

Weisskopf and self-energy

I am working my way through the 1934 paper by Weisskopf on the self-energy of the electron and is much helped by the English translation found here. I do have some difficulties with section 2 of this ...
Trond Saue's user avatar
1 vote
0 answers
72 views

Confusion about the dressed propagator

When considering interactions, the free propagator $S_0(p)$ of fermions for example gets "dressed" due to the self-energy of the fermion. The complete propagator then becomes $$ S(p)=\frac{/\...
Ozzy's user avatar
  • 172
1 vote
0 answers
65 views

Mass, field renormalization in QED

I am trying to understand the formula for mass and field renormalization in QED from the book Gauge theory by Bohm, Denner, pp $202$. They use renormalized perturbation to rewrite the Lorenz gauge ...
Tanmoy Pati's user avatar
1 vote
0 answers
107 views

One-loop potential correction in QED (Lamb shift)

Vacuum polarization 1-loop in QED gives another term in potential, named Lamb shift. Potential in terms of momentum $p^2$ is: $$V(p^2)= \frac{e^4_R}{2\pi^2p^2} \int_0^1 x(1-x)\ln[1-\frac{p^2}{m^2}x(1-...
Fairy's user avatar
  • 11
0 votes
1 answer
217 views

Coupling renormalization $\lambda\phi^4$ vs QED

I have some doubts regarding the allegedly different procedures used in $\lambda\phi^4$ and QED. First of all, I am more familiar with bare perturbation theory (no counterterms), so I would be ...
Mr. Feynman's user avatar
  • 1,989
5 votes
1 answer
247 views

Radiative correction of the electron self-energy

In Mandl & Shaw's Quantum Field Theory (2nd edition p217), the radiative correction for the electron self-energy is: $$ e_0^2 \Sigma(p) = \frac{\tilde{e_0}^2}{16\pi^2} (p\!\!/ -4m) \left(\frac{2}{\...
nomeruk's user avatar
  • 138
3 votes
0 answers
84 views

Fermion mass correction always proportional to it's mass? even in case of mixing?

In QED, it is obvious that one-loop correction to the mass of the fermion ($\psi$) is proportional to its bare mass. However, it is not very clear to me whether it is general even in the case when ...
PhysicsStudy's user avatar
6 votes
0 answers
167 views

Weinberg Vs Srednicki analysis for the electron self-energy

I am reading Srednicki's book on QFT. Specifically, I am reading about the loop corrections to the fermion propagator (Chapter 62). The relevant expression representing the one-loop and counterterm ...
schris38's user avatar
  • 3,992
3 votes
0 answers
131 views

Unstable particle problem in Peskin and Schroeder

I'm confused by the meaning of the field strength renormalization on page 237 of Peskin and Schroeder. In it, they define the physical mass $m$ of the unstable particle by $$m^2-m_0^2-\operatorname{Re}...
Ghorbalchov's user avatar
  • 2,122
2 votes
1 answer
153 views

Why is it necessary to use dressed single particle Green's function in QFT bound state problem (Bethe–Salpeter equation)?

On p. 333 in book Quantum Electrodynamics by Walter Greiner, Joachim Reinhardt or other references, they claim that in Bethe–Salpeter equation, we have to use dressed single particle Green's function, ...
swish47's user avatar
  • 53
0 votes
2 answers
201 views

Two question about evaluate electron self-energy in Peskin & Schroeder Book Charpter 7.1

(I attached the e-book link beneath) First question is on P.220 the equation (7.27): $$\delta m=m-m_0=\Sigma_2(p\!\!/=m)\approx\Sigma_2(p\!\!/=m_0).\tag{7.27}$$ Why taking $\Sigma_2(p\!\!/=m)\approx\...
a Fish in Dirac Sea's user avatar
2 votes
2 answers
440 views

Exact propagator - 1PI diagrams

Above diagram can be written in terms of series: $$i\Delta = -\frac{i}{p^2 + m^2} + \Big(-\frac{i}{p^2 + m^2}\Big)(i\Pi)\Big(-\frac{i}{p^2 + m^2}\Big)+ \Big(-\frac{i}{p^2 + m^2}\Big)(i\Pi)\Big(-\frac{...
Monopole's user avatar
  • 3,474
3 votes
1 answer
482 views

Is the 1PI self-energy of a massive photon transverse? EDIT: Upsetting consequences for the photon mass and renormalizability

Suppose we had the Lagrangian: $$\mathcal{L} = -\frac{1}{4} F^{\mu \nu}F_{\mu \nu} + \overline{\psi} (i \gamma^{\mu}\partial_{\mu} -m)\psi -e\overline{\psi} \gamma_{\mu} \psi A^{\mu} +\frac{1}{2} m_{\...
OutrageousKangaroo's user avatar
5 votes
4 answers
1k views

Vacuum polarisation in QED - why is it significant to renormalisation?

I have followed along for the derivation of the amplitude of the 2-photon vacuum polarisation and the book says the result is important for the renormalisation of QED, why is this?
sputnik44's user avatar
  • 115

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