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3 votes
1 answer
72 views

Can Black Holes with electroweak or strong interactions exists in General Relativity or in Supergravity?

During my Master's degree, we studied Black Holes as solutions of Einstein-Maxwell equations, and I was wondering if it would be possible to also add strong or electroweak forces in the classic non-...
Aleph12345's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
71 views

Geometrical interpretation of gauge fields of spin other than 2

Gravitation can be interpreted as a gauge theory with a spin 2 graviton field. This graviton field in general relativity is also interpreter as a Riemannian metric. Do other gauge theories also have ...
Andreas Christophilopoulos's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
70 views

Gravitational waves from metric perturbation

I have just been introduced to gravitational waves from metric perturbations and I have some questions about gauge symmetry and solutions in a given gauge. Consider a metric on the form $g_{\mu\nu} = \...
ICOR's user avatar
  • 69
0 votes
2 answers
122 views

Renormalizability of Quantum Gravity

At the end of chapter 6 on p. 210 in David's Griffiths' book Introduction to Elementary Particle Physics he says that 't Hooft proved that all gauge theories are renormalizable. I have also read ...
KaraboMadisa's user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
64 views

What is the relation between gauge field and Levi-Civita connection?

In field theory, covariant derivative is something like $$D_{\mu}\phi=(\partial_{\mu}-igA_{\mu})\phi$$ while in differential geometry, covariant derivative is something like $$D_{\mu}V^{\nu}=\partial_{...
Baoquan Feng's user avatar
0 votes
0 answers
83 views

Gauge transformation and Kaluza-Klein metric

The Kaluza-Klein metric, by reduction, can be written as a $(4+m) \times (4+m)$ symmetric matrix, where $m$ is the dimension of the additional spacetime (if we decompose $M_D = M_4 \times M_m$). It ...
LSS's user avatar
  • 980
14 votes
3 answers
2k views

How do physicists mathematically define gravitational waves?

When one first encounters gravitational waves in a standard GR lecture or a standard textbook like Carroll's "Spacetime and Geometry", they are often "defined" as follows: The ...
Moguntius's user avatar
  • 357
2 votes
0 answers
41 views

Coframe fields and spin connection as gauge fields and gauge invariance of torsion 2-form

I have questions about differential geometry calculations. If there is any misunderstanding of mine in the contents below, please let me know and help me to fix it. Let's consider a 3-dimensional ...
Quasiphysics's user avatar
1 vote
0 answers
61 views

Reparametrization invariance of Einbein action [closed]

I'm going through David Tong's online lecture notes on String theory. At the end of section 1.1.2, where he introduces the einbein action $$S=\frac{1}{2} \int d\tau (e^{-1}\dot{X}^2-em^2),\tag{1.8}$$ ...
Learner667's user avatar
15 votes
1 answer
345 views

What is the full algebra of BRST-invariant observables for general relativity?

The Hamiltonian formulation of general relativity - either in the ADM formalism or in Ashtekar variables - is straightforwardly a gauge theory. While the BRST formalism has primarily been developed to ...
ACuriousMind's user avatar
  • 126k
4 votes
0 answers
211 views

Justifying the transverse-traceless gauge

For weak gravitational fields, we can assume the metric is some perturbation of flat space: $g_{ab} = \eta_{ab} + h_{ab}$. Following Schutz's argument, you can incorporate a small coordinate ...
Kiwi breeder's user avatar
1 vote
0 answers
81 views

Why can't we gauge the Lorentz group? (Or can we?)

One of the (many different, somewhat independent) routes to gauge theory is to start from a global symmetry of some kind and "gauge" it, which involves promoting it to a local symmetry and ...
Panopticon's user avatar
4 votes
1 answer
299 views

Standard model and gravity gauge theory

I will briefly explain my understanding on the subject. In the following explanation i refer to the Poincarè group meaning the group: $$\mathcal{P}_{1,3} = \mathbb{R}^{1,3} \rtimes Spin^+(1,3)$$ The ...
LolloBoldo's user avatar
  • 1,611
2 votes
1 answer
151 views

Is there a general argument for why non-dynamical degrees of freedom show up in the propagation of massless gauge bosons?

In both spin-1 and spin-2 gauge theories, the gauge bosons (e.g. the photon & gluon and the graviton respectively) have two physical degrees of freedom, which can be observed quantum mechanically ...
Panopticon's user avatar
2 votes
0 answers
89 views

Noether's second theorem: its extension [closed]

From what I 'understand', Noether's second theorem applies to infinite-dimensional symmetry groups. A classic, even historical, example is the invariance group of Riemannian spacetimes, i.e. the set ...
Husserliana's user avatar

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