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4 votes
1 answer
70 views

Can we impose Coulomb gauge without using temporal gauge in source-free Maxwell electrodynamics?

Coulomb gauge is $$\vec{\nabla} \cdot A=0$$ Now, from expression for electric field in terms of potentials $\vec{E}=-\vec{\nabla} \phi-\frac{\partial \vec{A}}{\partial t}$ and Gauss Law $\vec{\nabla} \...
Nairit Sahoo's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
133 views

Is the bundle of the Aharonov-Bohm effect like the tangent bundle of a cylinder or like the tangent bundle of a truncated cone?

Both are trivial bundles, and the natural (metric) connection is flat (curvature-free) for both. The difference between them is that the holonomy of the tangent bundle of the cylinder is trivial while ...
mma's user avatar
  • 745
0 votes
0 answers
79 views

Quantizing the electric field without quantizing vector potential

I am trying to quantize the electromagnetic field, without using the vector potential. I start with a Fourier expansion: $$\begin{equation} \vec{E}(\vec{r},t) = \sum_{\epsilon} \vec{\epsilon} \int \...
Sidd's user avatar
  • 1,258
0 votes
2 answers
73 views

Gauge transformation with harmonic one-form

The electromagnetic four-potential $A^{\mu}$ is not uniquely determined by the physical situation. We have the equation $$\partial^{\mu}A^{\nu}-\partial^{\nu}A^{\mu}=F^{\mu\nu}.$$ Here $F^{\nu\mu}$ is ...
Riemann's user avatar
  • 1,440
1 vote
0 answers
44 views

Wick rotation of Electromagnetic Field Lagrangian [duplicate]

So i will directly to the problem. I am not getting how, when we Wick rotate, the EM action should go to (the correct answer) $$ S_E = \int -d^4 x\frac{1}{4} F_{\mu \nu} F^{\mu \nu} \underbrace{\...
LSS's user avatar
  • 980
1 vote
1 answer
147 views

How particles interact with the electromagnetic potential $A^\mu$?

It is well known that one reason quantum mechanics started to being developed, was because scientist wanted a model to explain electron orbits in atoms. Borh interpreted that the for orbits to exist ...
Álvaro Rodrigo's user avatar
0 votes
0 answers
60 views

Degree of freedom - Lorentz transfomation reduces it? [duplicate]

I am having a real difficult to counting degree of freedom. In fact, I notice that sometimes I am confused about what exactly we count as DoF, and what we do not count. See, for example, the ...
LSS's user avatar
  • 980
1 vote
0 answers
48 views

Gauge redundancy and Gauge fixing

Take any gauge invariant theory, for instance QED. The QED Lagrangian is invariant under $$A_{\mu}(x)\rightarrow A'_{\mu}(x)=A_{\mu}(x)+\partial_{\mu}. \alpha(x)$$ I have chosen a local gauge ...
schris38's user avatar
  • 3,982
0 votes
0 answers
111 views

Are eigenvalues of slashed covariant derivative real?

I am trying to demonstrate that the slashed covariant derivative $$ \gamma^\mu D_\mu = \gamma^\mu(\partial_\mu -iA_\mu) $$ has real eigenvalues: $$ \gamma^\mu D_\mu \varphi_m(x)=\lambda_m \varphi_m(x)...
Gorga's user avatar
  • 161
2 votes
4 answers
124 views

For these gauge transformations in electromagnetism, $\phi\to \phi-\partial_t \lambda$ and $\vec A\to \vec A+\nabla\lambda$, why do the signs differ?

I was looking at this question on Mathematics S.E, as I would like to know the origin of the signs in the gauge transformations of the scalar and vector potentials components, $\phi$ and $\vec A$, of ...
Skynet's user avatar
  • 61
1 vote
1 answer
75 views

Magnetic vector potential in 1+1 spacetime dimensions

In the theory of electromagnetism in 1+1 spacetime dimensions (one temporal and one spatial coordinate), one can define the 2-potential vector (analogous to the 4-potential vector in 3+1 spacetime ...
Daniel Vainshtein's user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
99 views

Can we express the electrodynamic potentials $V$, $\mathbf{A}$ in terms of the electrodynamic fields $\mathbf{E}$, $\mathbf{B}$?

In Griffiths' Introduction to Electrodynamics problem 10.25, I am asked to draw a "triangle diagram" illustrating the relationship between (1) the sources $\rho$, $\mathbf{J}$, (2) the ...
Jonathan Huang's user avatar
0 votes
0 answers
47 views

Can the derivative of a gauge-invariant quantity be gauge-dependent?

I am wondering whether it is possible for derivatives of a gauge-invariant quantity to be gauge-dependent. Certainly, the converse is true; taking the curl of a gauge-dependent quantity (the vector ...
redfive's user avatar
  • 327
1 vote
0 answers
50 views

Bibliography for the Quantization of the free electromagnetic field with the Lorenz gauge

Recently I have been studying QFT and when I arrived at the Gauge theory I learned that one can quantize the electromagnetic field with the Coulomb gauge and the Lorenz gauge. Regarding the Coulomb, I ...
0 votes
0 answers
69 views

Action for scalar field with externally specified EM fields and gauge

Consider the following Lagrangian for a complex scalar field $\Psi$ along with an electromagnetic environment, $$\mathcal{L} = ([\partial_\mu - i e A_\mu] \Psi)^* [\partial^\mu - i e A^\mu]\Psi - V(\...
evening silver fox's user avatar

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