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10 votes
2 answers
4k views

Deriving the action and the Lagrangian for a free massive point particle in Special Relativity

My question relates to Landau & Lifshitz, Classical Theory of Field, Chapter 2: Relativistic Mechanics, Paragraph 8: The principle of least action. As stated there, to determine the action ...
achatrch's user avatar
  • 737
6 votes
2 answers
766 views

Deriving special relativity free particle Lagrangian using infinitesimal boost?

At the very beginning of Landau and Lifshitz Mechanics they derive the form of the Lagrangian for a free particle in Newtonian mechanics. I want to see how to do the analogous derivation in special ...
Alex's user avatar
  • 866
4 votes
2 answers
2k views

Why do we consider Lagrangian densities in field theory (as opposed to Lagrangians as in point mechanics)?

My question is: Why do we consider Lagrangian densities in field theory (as opposed to Lagrangians as in point mechanics)? Is it simply because of the following? We wish the theories to be Lorentz ...
Will's user avatar
  • 3,063
14 votes
6 answers
2k views

Does universal speed limit of information contradict the ability of a particle to pick a trajectory using Principle of Least Action?

I'm doing some self reading on Lagrangian Mechanics and Special Relavivity. The following are two statements that seem to be taken as absolute fundamentals and yet I'm unable to reconcile one with the ...
user avatar
7 votes
1 answer
169 views

Modifying Feynman-Wheeler absorber theory to work with arbitrary potentials?

I'm trying to consider relativistic multi-body dynamics in special relativity. In classical mechanics, it's easy to write a simple $n$-body system with arbitrary potential $V$: \begin{equation} m \...
David's user avatar
  • 716
2 votes
0 answers
161 views

Problem understanding something from the variational principle for free particle motion (James Hartle's book, chapter 5)

I am currently studying general relativity from James Hartle's book and I have trouble understanding how he goes to equation (5.60) from equation (5.58). It's about the variational principle for free ...
Vachtanidis Giorgos's user avatar
2 votes
2 answers
2k views

Lagrangian for free particle in special relativity

From definition of Lagrangian: $L = T - U$. As I understand for free particle ($U = 0$) one should write $L = T$. In special relativity we want Lorentz-invariant action thus we define free-particle ...
A wing on a fly's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
334 views

Deriving the relativistic point particle action from QFT

In principle, the action of a free relativistic particle of mass $m$ and trajectory $x^\mu(\tau)$ $$ S = -m \int d\tau \sqrt{\frac{dx_\mu}{d\tau}\frac{dx^\mu}{d\tau}} $$ should be obtainable as the ...
Humanity93's user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
257 views

Why is the action integral of relativity particles $S = -mc\int ds$? [duplicate]

In my classical mechanic course material, it states that (In context of relativity) The path of a particle is called its "world line". Each world line can be noted mathematically using the ...
Ian Hsiao's user avatar
  • 301