Suppose there are two balls: one steel ball that cannot break with a mass of 10 kg, and another smaller wooden ball with a mass of 1 kg, which will break if a force of 10 N is applied to it.
Consider a scenario where the wooden ball is moving toward the stationary steel ball with a velocity of 1 m/s. The collision between the two balls is completely inelastic, meaning that they stick together after the collision.
In the frame of reference attached to the steel ball, the wooden ball has a momentum of 1 kgm/s (since its mass is 1 kg and its velocity is 1 m/s). When the collision occurs, the wooden ball will come to a complete stop or move slowly together(lets say that v_f=0) , which suggests a change in momentum of 1 kgm/s. The force experienced by the wooden ball would be $ \frac{\Delta p}{\Delta t}$, where $\Delta p$ is the change in momentum. If this force is calculated to be 1 N, it would not be enough to break the wooden ball.
Now, let's look at this from the frame attached to the wooden ball. In this frame, the steel ball is moving toward the wooden ball with a velocity of 1 m/s, carrying a momentum of 10 kg*m/s (since its mass is 10 kg and its velocity is 1 m/s). Upon collision, the steel ball will come to a stop as seen from the wooden ball. This suggests a much larger change in momentum, which would imply a force of 10 N, enough to break the wooden ball.
This appears paradoxical because, from the steel ball's frame, the wooden ball should not break, while from the wooden ball's frame, it should break due to the larger force. How can this paradox be resolved?
I know its answer is somewhere when the collision occurs the wooden ball's frame becomes noninertial but how does that wooden ball know that I am currently noninertial since in its own frame its always at rest and the force that is going to act upon me is due to my own declaration.