I know this question has probably been asked a 100 times over on this site and there is a whole controversy on it but I still don't understand the explanations and had to ask it again. First of all I would like to mention the explanation that I feel best explains everything and is basically borrowed from Purcell and Morin. Suppose we have a circuit consisting of a resistance $R$ and a battery of negligible resistance having EMF $V$. The circuit has a self inductance $L$. Now from Faraday's we know $$ -\frac {d\phi}{dt} = \mathcal{E}_{in} $$ where $\phi$ is the flux due to the magnetic field and $\mathcal{E}_{in}$ is the induce EMF in the circuit due to changing magnetic fields. In this case magnetic field are changed due to variation of current in the circuit. So, we know $$ \phi= LI$$ and subsequently by assuming L constant, $$ \frac {d\phi}{dt} = L\frac {dI}{dt} $$ and since this induced EMF by Lenz law will oppose the existing EMF, we get an effective EMF, $$ \mathcal{E}_{eff}= V-\mathcal{E}_{in}= V-L\frac {dI}{dt} $$ so now this effective EMF will generate a current across the circuit, and by Ohm's law, $$ \mathcal{E}_{eff}= V-L\frac {dI}{dt}=IR$$ Now, to the doubts I have in various answers given.
- According to this analysis, KVL in general holds in circuits having various combination of resistances, capacitors and inductors. Even when there is a time varying field. Which doesn't seem right to me since that would imply closed line integral of electric field of even vortex field will be 0 (since, closed line integral of the conservative fields will be 0). So essentially either both integrals are 0 or both aren't either way they kind of go against the concepts I have learnt uptil now.
- I saw certain explanations using directly Faraday's laws where they equated the line integral of Electric field to $L\frac {dI}{dt} $ term, but when they evaluated the integral they have just taken the potential drop against battery and resistor, but when we go in a loop across the circuit there exists besides the potential drop due to battery and resistor the potential change due to non conservative fields which are accompanied by the time varying magnetic fields. Shouldn't that be accounted as well (I know it would give the wrong conclusion but fundamentally the line integral should evaluate to that if I'm not wrong)
- Several answers referred to the lumped model where the fields existed only within the components of the circuit, I personally I'm not comfortable with that and I feel it essentially ignores the induced EMF which will be generated in the circuit.
Sidenote: I have read this topic in various books, a majority don't go over it, Purcell and Morin did go over it and intuitively I feel it was the best explanation I could find. I tried reading Feynman but he discussed this topic through AC circuits and impedances which I haven't studied yet so couldn't really understand. Please point out any mistakes in any claims I make. And also please use vector analysis as less frequently as possible, as at a high school level I have a very basic understanding of the vector operators.