I'm working through Chap. $30$ of Dirac's "GTR" where he develops the "comprehensive action principle". He makes a very slick and mathematically elegant argument to show that the stress-energy tensor satisfies ${T^{\mu\nu}}_{;\,\nu}=0$.
$\quad\quad$However, since we already have the Einstein field equation: $$R^{μν}-\frac{1}{2} g^{μν}R = -8πT^{μν} \quad\quad(*)$$ doesn't ${T^{\mu\nu}}_{;\nu}=0$ follow immediately from this corollary of the Bianchi identity:
$$\left( R^{μν}-\frac{1}{2} g^{μν}R \right)_{;\,\nu} = 0 \quad ?$$ (See Dirac "GTR" Eq. $(14.3)$.)
$\quad\quad$The field equation $(*)$ follows from the action principle $\delta(I + I')=0$, where $I$ is the (Hilbert) action for the gravitational field, and $I'$ is the action for any other matter-energy field(s). So we already have $(*)$ in our pocket. Why then don't we automatically have ${T^{\mu\nu}}_{;\,\nu}=0$ from the Bianchi relation?