If $A,B\in \mathscr{L_H}$ in the lattice of subspaces of a Hilbert space $\mathscr{H}$,
then is it always true that $$A\sqsubseteq B\ \&\ B\sqsubseteq A \implies A=B\ ~ ?$$
Or is there maybe an additional requirement(s) that $\mathscr{L_H}$ be the lattice of closed subspaces, or that $\mathscr{H}$ be separable, or etc? That $\mathscr{L_H}$ is atomic and atomistic with the covering property seems to suggest it's always true. But there also seem to be some non-Hausdorff topologies over $\mathscr{L_H}$, and convergent sequences in $T_0$ topologies don't always have unique limits, which I'm finding confusing with respect to this equality question. So I just want to confirm (or deny) that if I prove $A\sqsubseteq B\ \&\ B\sqsubseteq A$ in $\mathscr{L_H}$, then I can infer $A=B$.