I recently read the statement that near the Earth, in the Newtonian weak gravitational field, gravity is 99.9999% mainly due to "curvature of time" (ie gravitational time dilation), and only about 0.0001% due to the warping of space. Unfortunately there was no derivation of these values. I'd be interested how you calculate these percentages. What would be the (small) gravitational redshift derived from these data?
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1$\begingroup$ Where did you read this statement? I’m curious as to the source. $\endgroup$– controlgroupCommented May 29 at 17:18
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1$\begingroup$ What do you mean by "warping of space"? Spacetime curves as a whole. The curvature cannot in general be separated. Also note that since the Ricci tensor is zero in vacuum, the curvatures are equal and opposite such that the volume does not change. $\endgroup$– Vincent ThackerCommented May 29 at 17:29
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$\begingroup$ The statement is actually that the largest component of the contribution to the illusion of gravitational acceleration is, in some senses obviously, the time component. It is usually done as a homework problem by asking you to compute the geodesic deviation. It is a real result, but it is a very specific way of looking at it, and not within the standard curriculum treatment of the topic. $\endgroup$– naturallyInconsistentCommented May 29 at 17:32
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$\begingroup$ This might help - Why can't I do this to get infinite energy? $\endgroup$– mmesser314Commented May 29 at 17:43
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1$\begingroup$ @ReneKail Quora is by no means a reliable source of physics knowledge. $\endgroup$– Vincent ThackerCommented May 29 at 18:31
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