I apologize for the following question because it will seem like a cheap please help me with my homework one.
I just want a hint as to what direction to follow. Suppose we have a 5d space where the 5th dimension is periodic. It models a circle of radius R. We will take R to be very small, this setup reminded me of Kaluza-Klein theory. A solution for the Laplace equation is
$$V=-Q \sum\limits_{n=-\infty}^{n=\infty} \frac{1}{r^2+(y+2\pi n R)^2},$$ $r$ is the length for the other 4 dimensions. The exercise asks me to simplify the problem by approximating the sum to an integral with respect to y, assuming $R \to 0$. My question is how to do this approximation systematically, should I use something like Euler-Maclaurin formula and ignore the error? My problem here is that we sum with respect to n, so the integral won't be with respect to y. Another idea a had is to first expand the function $\approx \frac{1}{r^2+y^2}-\frac{4 \pi n y R}{{(r^2+y^2)}^2}$, but this seems to make things worse when I try to take the sum (first term is infinite). Maybe there is a trick I am unaware of, my intuition says that to first order we will still have $V=-Q/r$ but I can't replicate it.